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Cisco Implementing and Operating Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR) 350-501 Exam Questions in PDF

Free Cisco 350-501 Dumps Questions (page: 6)

350-501 PDF — 515 Questions

1. Architecture
2. Networking
3. MPLS and Segment Routing
4. Services
5. Automation and Assurance
6. Mixed Questions

Which CLI mode must be used to configure the BGP keychain in Cisco IOS XR Software?

  1. routing configuration mode
  2. BGP neighbor configuration mode
  3. global configuration mode
  4. BGP address-family configuration mode

Answer(s): B




1. Architecture
2. Networking
3. MPLS and Segment Routing
4. Services
5. Automation and Assurance
6. Mixed Questions

A remote operation center is deploying a set of I-BGP and E-BGP connections for multiple IOS-XR platforms using the same template. The I-BGP sessions exchange prefixes with no apparent issues, but the E-BGP sessions do not exchange routes. What causes this issue?

  1. The I-BGP neighbors are mistyped and HELLO packets cannot be exchanged successfully between routers.
  2. The E-BGP neighbors are not allowed to exchange Information due to the customer platform's default policy.
  3. A PASS ALL policy has not been implemented for the I-BGP neighbors.
  4. The next-hop-self command is not implemented on both E-BGP neighbors.

Answer(s): B




1. Architecture
2. Networking
3. MPLS and Segment Routing
4. Services
5. Automation and Assurance
6. Mixed Questions



Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is securing a customer's network. Which command must the engineer use to complete this configuration to prevent a DoS attack?

  1. neighbor ttl-security
  2. ebgp-multihop
  3. neighbor ebgp-multihop
  4. ttl-security

Answer(s): D




1. Architecture
2. Networking
3. MPLS and Segment Routing
4. Services
5. Automation and Assurance
6. Mixed Questions

What is the function of the FEC field within the OTN signal structure?

  1. It allows the sending devices to apply QoS within the OTN forwarding structure.
  2. It allows deep inspection of data payload fields.
  3. It allows receivers to correct errors upon data arrival
  4. It allows source nodes to discard payload errors before transmitting data on the network.

Answer(s): C




1. Architecture
2. Networking
3. MPLS and Segment Routing
4. Services
5. Automation and Assurance
6. Mixed Questions

What is the primary purpose of application hosting in a service-provider virtualization environment?

  1. to leverage artificial intelligence and other algorithms for use in network-based applications
  2. to consolidate multiple applications onto fewer physical network computer devices
  3. to provide a secure remote-access portal for service-provider customers to access network applications
  4. to provide a platform for running third-party applications directly on network devices

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In a service-provider virtualization environment, application hosting allows third-party applications to run directly on network devices. This reduces the need for separate infrastructure, enhances operational efficiency, and supports advanced capabilities like deep packet inspection, edge computing, and specialized network services.
By hosting applications on network devices, service providers can deliver innovative services and reduce latency for applications requiring direct integration with the network.




1. Architecture
2. Networking
3. MPLS and Segment Routing
4. Services
5. Automation and Assurance
6. Mixed Questions

What is the primary purpose of routed optical networks?

  1. to provide redundancy for failed network connections by automatically switching to backup paths
  2. to convert analog signals to digital signals for transmission over fiber-optic cables
  3. to encrypt and secure data traveling across the network
  4. to simplify network management by collapsing multiple layers into a single architecture

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The primary purpose of routed optical networks is to simplify network operations by collapsing multiple layers (e.g., IP, MPLS, and optical layers) into a single unified architecture. This reduces complexity, improves scalability, and enhances efficiency in managing and operating the network.
Key features of routed optical networks include:
Integration of routing and optical transport layers.

Simplified network management and reduced operational costs.

Enhanced performance by enabling direct communication between IP and optical layers without

intermediate equipment.




1. Architecture
2. Networking
3. MPLS and Segment Routing
4. Services
5. Automation and Assurance
6. Mixed Questions

DRAG DROP (Drag and Drop is not supported)

Drag and drop the 5G RAN architecture types from the bottom next to the corresponding topologies on the right.

Select and Place:

  1. See Explanation section for answer.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:




1. D-RAN: Backhaul

In Distributed RAN (D-RAN), the Radio Unit (RU), Distributed Unit (DU), and Centralized Unit (CU) are co- located at the cell site, and only the backhaul interface connects to the mobile core.

2. C-RAN: Front/MID/Backhaul

This is a Centralized RAN (C-RAN) with all three segments -- fronthaul (RU to DU), midhaul (DU to CU), and backhaul (CU to core) -- present. DU and CU are centralized but together.

3. C-RAN: Front/Backhaul

The RU connects to a centralized CU, skipping the DU. This represents a C-RAN design with fronthaul and backhaul only.

4. C-RAN: MID/Backhaul

RU is distributed, but DU is centralized and connects to a remote CU. This scenario omits fronthaul in favor of midhaul and backhaul.




1. Architecture
2. Networking
3. MPLS and Segment Routing
4. Services
5. Automation and Assurance
6. Mixed Questions

What is the primary purpose of Secure ZTP?

  1. to automate the secure provisioning of network devices during initial deployment
  2. to securely and seamlessly encrypt traffic across the entire network
  3. to provide real-time threat detection and mitigation for devices in the network
  4. to provide secure remote access to network devices for management and troubleshooting

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Secure Zero-Touch Provisioning automates the secure onboarding and initial configuration of network devices without manual intervention. It ensures that devices are authenticated and provisioned with trusted software and configuration during first boot, protecting the deployment process from unauthorized access or tampering.



Viewing page 6 of 66

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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

Anonymous
E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

UNITED KINGDOM
V
vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

i need to pass exam for VMware 2V0-11.25

Anonymous
M
Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

UNITED STATES
O
OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

great dumps to practice for the exam

SOUTH AFRICA
A
Adekunle willaims
6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

How reliable and relevant are these questions?? also i can see the last update here was January and definitely new questions would have emerged.

Anonymous
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