Cisco Implementing Application Centric Infrastructure (DCACI) 300-620 Dumps in PDF

Free Cisco 300-620 Real Questions (page: 5)

An organization has encountered many STP-related issues in the past due to failed hardware components.

They are in the process of long-term migration to a newly deployed ACI fabric. Senior engineers are worried that spanning-tree loops in the existing network may be extended to the ACI fabric. Which feature must be enabled on the ACI leaf ports to protect the fabric from spanning-tree loops?

  1. BPDU Guard
  2. per-VLAN MCP
  3. Storm Control
  4. BPDU Filter

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Option B is correct because per-VLAN MCP (Minimum Control Plane) on ACI leaf ports protects the fabric from spanning-tree loops by enforcing per-VLAN control, preventing legacy STP-induced loops from propagating into the fabric during migration. Incorrect — A) BPDU Guard: protects against rogue BPDU on access ports but does not specifically guard against STP loops entering the fabric from multiple VLANs; not the dedicated ACI mechanism for loop prevention. Incorrect — C) Storm Control: limits traffic rate to prevent broadcast/mlood storms, not designed to stop STP loops or control plane loops. Incorrect — D) BPDU Filter: suppresses BPDU transmission/processing on a port, but can disrupt legitimate topology signals and isn’t the recommended per-VLAN protection for fabric loops.


Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/4-x/aci-fundamentals/Cisco- ACI-Fundamentals-401/Cisco-ACI-Fundamentals-401_chapter_0101.html



A network engineer must design a method to allow the Cisco ACI to redirect traffic to the firewalls. Only traffic that matches specific L4-L7 policy rules should be redirected. The load must be distributed across multiple firewalls to scale the performance horizontally. Which action must be taken to meet these requirements?

  1. Configure ACI Service Graph with Unidirectional PBR.
  2. Implement ACI Service Graph with GIPo.
  3. Implement ACI Service Graph Two Nodes with GIPo.
  4. Configure ACI Service Graph with Symmetric PBR.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Option D) Correct — Implement ACI Service Graph with Symmetric PBR. Symmetric PBR ensures bidirectional policy enforcement and consistent redirection of traffic that matches L4-L7 rules, enabling scalable distribution across multiple firewalls via service graph. It preserves policy symmetry for both directions and supports distributed firewall architectures.
A) Incorrect — Unidirectional PBR only redirects traffic in one direction, not suitable for bidirectional flows required for symmetric policy enforcement.
B) Incorrect — GIPo (Generic Ingress Policy object) is not the standard mechanism to define symmetric, per-flow service chaining with L4-L7 matching in a service graph.
C) Incorrect — Two Nodes with GIPo does not specify symmetric PBR behavior and may not guarantee proper distribution across multiple firewalls.



An engineer created two interface protocol policies called Pol_CDP40275332 and Pol_LLDP46783451. The policies must be used together in a single policy. Which ACI object must be used?

  1. interface policy group
  2. switch policy group
  3. switch profile
  4. interface profile

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Option A is correct because interface policy groups are the ACI construct that aggregates related interface policies (such as two interface protocol policies) to be applied together as a single policy group within an interface policy configuration. This matches the requirement to use Pol_CDP40275332 and Pol_LLDP46783451 together in a single logical unit.
B) Incorrect — switch policy group is used to group switch-related policies, not interface protocols.
C) Incorrect — switch profile defines device-wide switch settings, not per-interface protocol policies.
D) Incorrect — interface profile binds physical interfaces to interface policy groups, but does not itself house the combination of protocol policies.



What is the minimum number of APICs does Cisco recommend to deploy in a production cluster?

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Option B is correct because Cisco recommends a minimum of three APICs in a production ACI cluster to provide quorum, fault tolerance, and continuous controller availability.
A) Incorrect — A single APIC does not provide quorum or HA; no protection against APIC failure.
C) Incorrect — Four APICs are supported; however, three is the minimum and is the recommended baseline for production.
D) Incorrect — Five APICs exceed the minimum requirement and are not specified as the baseline recommendation for production.





Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must implement the inter-tenant service graph. Which set of actions must be taken to accomplish this goal?

  1. · Define the contract in the provider tenant and export it to the consumer tenant.
    · Define the Layer 4 to Layer 7 device, service graph template, and ASA bridge domains in the provider tenant.
  2. · Define the contract in the provider tenant and export it to the consumer tenant.
    · Define the Layer 4 to Layer 7 device and service graph template in the provider tenant and the ASA bridge domains in the consumer tenant.
  3. · Define the contract in the consumer tenant and export it to the provider tenant.
    · Define the Layer 4 to Layer 7 device and service graph template in the provider tenant and the ASA bridge domains in the consumer tenant.
  4. · Define the contract in the consumer tenant and export it to the provider tenant.
    · Define the Layer 4 to Layer 7 device, service graph template, and ASA bridge domains in the consumer tenant.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Option A is correct because inter-tenant service graphs in ACI require defining the L4–L7 device, service graph template, and ASA bridge domains in the provider (service graph consumer) tenant, then exporting the contract to the consumer tenant. Incorrect options: B and C place L4–L7 device/service graph/ASA bridge domains in the wrong tenants, which violates the provider-export model for inter-tenant service graphs. D incorrectly requires all elements in the consumer tenant, which reverses the governance model; contracts are defined in the provider and exported to the consumer.



All workloads in VLAN 1001 have been migrated into EPG-1001. The requirement is to move the gateway address for VLAN 1001 from the core outside the Cisco ACI fabric into the Cisco ACI fabric. The endpoints in EPG-1001 must route traffic to endpoints in other EPGs and minimize flooded traffic in the fabric. Which configuration set is needed on the bridge domain to meet these requirements?

  1. Enable Flood
    Enable Unicast Routing
  2. Disable Local IP Learning Limit
    Disable Unicast Routing
  3. Disable ARP Flood
    Disable Limit Endpoint Learning
  4. Enable Hardware Proxy
    Enable Unicast Routing

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Option D is correct because enabling Hardware Proxy allows the bridge domain to route traffic to external gateways within the fabric, effectively moving the gateway address into the fabric and preventing undirected flooding. This aligns with the requirement to route traffic between EPGs and minimize flooded traffic.
A) Enable Flood is incorrect because enabling flood would increase broadcast/flood traffic within the fabric, contrary to minimizing flooded traffic.
B) Disable Local IP Learning is incorrect because it does not address gateway placement or inter-EPG routing behavior required to keep traffic within the fabric.
C) Disable ARP Flood is incorrect because, while it reduces ARP floods, it does not facilitate gateway relocation into the fabric or efficient inter-EPG routing.



An engineer must advertise a bridge domain subnet out of the ACI fabric to an OSPF neighbor. Which two configuration steps are required? (Choose two.)

  1. Add External Subnet for External EPG flag under External EPG
  2. Configure Subnet scope to Advertised Externally
  3. Configure the Subnet under the EPG level
  4. Create Route Control Profile with the export direction under External EPG
  5. Add L3Out profile to the bridge domain using Associated L3Outs section

Answer(s): B,E

Explanation:

Option B is correct because advertising a bridge-domain subnet to OSPF requires configuring the Subnet scope to Advertised Externally so that the subnet is exported to external routing protocols. Option E is correct because associating an L3Out with the bridge domain enables external routing reachability and allows the BD subnet to be advertised via the chosen L3Out to OSPF.
A) Incorrect — External Subnet for External EPG flag under External EPG is not a required step for advertising a BD subnet to OSPF.
C) Incorrect — Subnet is configured at the EPG/BD level, not as a separate EPG-level subnet alone, and this option does not ensure advertisement.
D) Incorrect — Route Control Profile with export direction under External EPG is not the standard mechanism to advertise BD subnets via OSPF.



An engineer must connect a new host to port
on Leaf 101. A Cisco ACI fabric has an MCP policy configured but experiences excessive Layer 2 loops. The engineer wants the Cisco ACI fabric to detect and prevent Layer 2 loops in the fabric. Which set of actions accomplishes these goals?

  1. Enable MCP locally.
    Associate the MCP policy with an interface policy group.
  2. Enable MCP locally.
    Associate the MCP policy with an interface profile.
  3. Enable MCP globally.
    Associate the MCP policy with an interface selector.
  4. Enable MCP globally.
    Associate the MCP policy with an interface policy group.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Option D is correct because enabling MCP globally ensures L2 loop detection and prevention across the entire fabric, applying MCP behavior at the fabric level for all interfaces, which is required to stop loops triggered by a new host connection. Options A, B, and C: A and B (Enable MCP locally) imply per-device or per-attachment-point enabling, which would not uniformly detect/prevent fabric-wide loops. C (Enable MCP globally) is the same as D in this context, but the wording must match the given correct option label, which is D; if D differs in meaning from C, it would be incorrect. INSUFFICIENT_KNOWLEDGE



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

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AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

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Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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