Cisco Understanding Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) 200-201 Dumps in PDF

Free Cisco 200-201 Real Questions (page: 10)

Which regular expression is needed to capture the IP address 192.168.20.232?

  1. ^(?:[0-9]{1,3}\.){3}[0-9]{1,3}
  2. ^(?:[0-9]{1,3}\.)*
  3. ^)?:[0-9]{1,3}\.){1,4}
  4. ^([0-9].{3})

Answer(s): A

Explanation:


Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/cs-mars/4-3/user/guide/local _controller/appreexp.html




Refer to the exhibit. A SOC analyst is examining the Windows security logs of one of the endpoints.
What is the possible reason for this event log?

  1. System maintenance logs
  2. Windows failed to audit logs
  3. Malware Attack
  4. Brute force attack

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Looking at the event log, there are several indicators that suggest a potential malware attack:
● Event ID 4688: A new process was created in the *C:\Temp* directory (s21351b.exe). This is suspicious because legitimate processes typically don’t run from temporary directories, which are often used by malware to hide malicious executables.
● Event ID 1102: The audit log was cleared by SYSTEM. Attackers often clear event logs to cover their tracks after gaining access to a system, which is a clear indicator of malicious activity.
● Event ID 4657: A registry key related to Windows Defender was modified. Malware often disables security software like Windows Defender to prevent detection and removal.
● Event ID 7045: The Windows Defender Antivirus Service was stopped. Stopping the antivirus service is a common action taken by malware to disable security defenses.
These events together strongly suggest that a malware attack is taking place, where an attacker has executed a malicious process, modified system security settings, and disabled the antivirus to avoid detection.



Which evasion technique is a function of ransomware?

  1. resource exhaustion
  2. encryption
  3. encoding
  4. extended sleep calls

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Extended sleep calls delay execution so that dynamic analysis environments (like sandboxes) time out before the malicious activity runs; this is a common time-based anti-analysis evasion technique used by ransomware/malware.



What is the difference between indicator of attack (IoA) and indicators of compromise (IoC)?

  1. IoA refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and IoC refers to the resulting loss.
  2. IoA is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and IoC allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.
  3. IoC refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and IoA refers to the resulting loss.
  4. IoC is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and IoA allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

An Indicator of Compromise (IoC) is a sign that a system or network has already been compromised and is used to determine if an attack has already occurred and to identify the scope of the compromise. An Indicator of Attack (IoA), on the other hand, is a signal or pattern that suggests an attack is currently underway or about to occur and is used to detect and respond to an attack in progress.



A multinational organization uses a complex network infrastructure, incorporating various cloud services, different endpoints, and distributed networks with several network security devices.
Which challenge will the security team face when ensuring robust data visibility across the organization for effective threat detection and response?

  1. inconsistent data aggregation from different technologies used within the organization
  2. different protocols used through different technologies across the organization
  3. duplicate logs and alerts from different platforms
  4. limited data retention policies across different platforms

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

With many different platforms and security tools generating telemetry in different formats and levels of detail, the main visibility challenge is consistently collecting, normalizing, and correlating that data so it can be analyzed together for reliable detection and response.



What describes the impact of false-positive alerts compared to false-negative alerts?

  1. A false negative is alerting for an XSS attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an XSS attack happened. A false positive is when an XSS attack happens and no alert is raised.
  2. A false positive is an event altering for an SQL injection attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an attack attempt was blocked by IPS. A false negative is when the attack gets detected but succeeds and results in a breach.
  3. A false positive is an event altering for a brute-force attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that a legitimate user entered the wrong credential several times. A false negative is when a threat actor tries to brute-force attack a system and no alert is raised.
  4. A false negative is a legitimate attack triggering a brute-force alert. An engineer investigates the alert and finds out someone intended to break into the system. A false positive is when no alert and no attack is occurring.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

False Positive: This occurs when an alert is generated for an event that is flagged as an attack or threat, but upon investigation, it is determined to be a legitimate action or benign event. For instance, in the case of a brute-force attack alert, the investigation reveals that the multiple login attempts were made by a legitimate user who forgot their password.
False Negative: This happens when an attack or malicious activity occurs, but the security system fails to detect or generate an alert for it. In the context of a brute-force attack, a false negative occurs when a threat actor is attempting to break into the system using multiple incorrect login attempts, yet the security system fails to raise an alert for this suspicious activity.



An analyst performs traffic analysis to detect data exfiltration and identifies a high frequency of DNS requests in a small period of time.
Which technology makes this behavior feasible?

  1. access control list
  2. NAT
  3. encryption
  4. tunneling

Answer(s): D




Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst wraps up the shift and passed open ticket notes to the night shift SOC team analyst. The ticket name in question is “Investigating suspicious activity on a Windows Server”.
Which operating system components must the analyst prioritize to uncover the attacker’s persistence mechanisms?

  1. Review the Windows Defender setup and failed login attempts in Event Viewer.
  2. Investigate the Task Scheduler entries and Windows Defender settings.
  3. Analyze the Windows Registry changes and Task Scheduler tasks.
  4. Focus on the user account log-ins and delete newly added Run keys in the registry.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Persistence on Windows systems is most commonly achieved by configuring programs to automatically execute after reboot or on a schedule, which is done through startup-related registry keys and scheduled tasks. The modified Run keys and newly created Task Scheduler entries directly indicate mechanisms the attacker is using to maintain continued access to the system.



Share your comments for Cisco 200-201 exam with other users:

N
NRI
8/27/2023 10:05:00 AM

will post once the exam is finished

K
kent
11/3/2023 10:45:00 AM

relevant questions

Q
Qasim
6/11/2022 9:43:00 AM

just clear exam on 10/06/2202 dumps is valid all questions are came same in dumps only 2 new questions total 46 questions 1 case study with 5 question no lab/simulation in my exam please check the answers best of luck

C
Cath
10/10/2023 10:09:00 AM

q.112 - correct answer is c - the event registry is a module that provides event definitions. answer a - not correct as it is the definition of event log

S
Shiji
10/15/2023 1:31:00 PM

good and useful.

A
Ade
6/25/2023 1:14:00 PM

good questions

P
Praveen P
11/8/2023 5:18:00 AM

good content

A
Anastasiia
12/28/2023 9:06:00 AM

totally not correct answers. 21. you have one gcp account running in your default region and zone and another account running in a non-default region and zone. you want to start a new compute engine instance in these two google cloud platform accounts using the command line interface. what should you do? correct: create two configurations using gcloud config configurations create [name]. run gcloud config configurations activate [name] to switch between accounts when running the commands to start the compute engine instances.

P
Priyanka
7/24/2023 2:26:00 AM

kindly upload the dumps

N
Nabeel
7/25/2023 4:11:00 PM

still learning

G
gure
7/26/2023 5:10:00 PM

excellent way to learn

C
ciken
8/24/2023 2:55:00 PM

help so much

B
Biswa
11/20/2023 9:28:00 AM

understand sql col.

S
Saint Pierre
10/24/2023 6:21:00 AM

i would give 5 stars to this website as i studied for az-800 exam from here. it has all the relevant material available for preparation. i got 890/1000 on the test.

R
Rose
7/24/2023 2:16:00 PM

this is nice.

A
anon
10/15/2023 12:21:00 PM

q55- the ridac workflow can be modified using flow designer, correct answer is d not a

N
NanoTek3
6/13/2022 10:44:00 PM

by far this is the most accurate exam dumps i have ever purchased. all questions are in the exam. i saw almost 90% of the questions word by word.

E
eriy
11/9/2023 5:12:00 AM

i cleared the az-104 exam by scoring 930/1000 on the exam. it was all possible due to this platform as it provides premium quality service. thank you!

M
Muhammad Rawish Siddiqui
12/8/2023 8:12:00 PM

question # 232: accessibility, privacy, and innovation are not data quality dimensions.

V
Venkat
12/27/2023 9:04:00 AM

looks wrong answer for 443 question, please check and update

V
Varun
10/29/2023 9:11:00 PM

great question

D
Doc
10/29/2023 9:36:00 PM

question: a user wants to start a recruiting posting job posting. what must occur before the posting process can begin? 3 ans: comment- option e is incorrect reason: as part of enablement steps, sap recommends that to be able to post jobs to a job board, a user need to have the correct permission and secondly, be associated with one posting profile at minimum

I
It‘s not A
9/17/2023 5:31:00 PM

answer to question 72 is d [sys_user_role]

I
indira m
8/14/2023 12:15:00 PM

please provide the pdf

R
ribrahim
8/1/2023 6:05:00 AM

hey guys, just to let you all know that i cleared my 312-38 today within 1 hr with 100 questions and passed. thank you so much brain-dumps.net all the questions that ive studied in this dump came out exactly the same word for word "verbatim". you rock brain-dumps.net!!! section name total score gained score network perimeter protection 16 11 incident response 10 8 enterprise virtual, cloud, and wireless network protection 12 8 application and data protection 13 10 network défense management 10 9 endpoint protection 15 12 incident d

A
Andrew
8/23/2023 6:02:00 PM

very helpful

L
latha
9/7/2023 8:14:00 AM

useful questions

I
ibrahim
11/9/2023 7:57:00 AM

page :20 https://exam-dumps.com/snowflake/free-cof-c02-braindumps.html?p=20#collapse_453 q 74: true or false: pipes can be suspended and resumed. true. desc.: pausing or resuming pipes in addition to the pipe owner, a role that has the following minimum permissions can pause or resume the pipe https://docs.snowflake.com/en/user-guide/data-load-snowpipe-intro

F
Franklin Allagoa
7/5/2023 5:16:00 AM

i want hcia exam dumps

S
SSA
12/24/2023 1:18:00 PM

good training

B
BK
8/11/2023 12:23:00 PM

very useful

D
Deepika Narayanan
7/13/2023 11:05:00 PM

yes need this exam dumps

B
Blessious Phiri
8/15/2023 3:31:00 PM

these questions are a great eye opener

J
Jagdesh
9/8/2023 8:17:00 AM

thank you for providing these questions and answers. they helped me pass my exam. you guys are great.

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!