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Arcitura Education Cloud Technology Lab C90.03 Dumps in PDF

Free Arcitura Education C90.03 Real Questions (page: 5)

C90.03 PDF — 21 Questions

Cloud Consumer A (the organization that owns Cloud Service Consumer A) needs regular access to an external, cloud-based Weather Service that provides up-to-date weather forecast information. Cloud Providers X, Y and Z are competing public cloud providers, each offering a Weather Service with the features required by Cloud Consumer A. Based on the provided statistics, which cloud provider can offer a Weather Service with the least amount of projected downtime?

  1. Cloud ProviderX
  2. Cloud ProviderY
  3. Cloud Provider Z
  4. Any of the three cloud providers, because their availability ratings are identical.

Answer(s): A



A cloud consumer is interested in leasing cloud-based virtual servers. It compares the virtual servers offered by Cloud Provider X and Cloud Provider Y. Cloud X (owned by Cloud Provider X) and Cloud Y (owned by Cloud Provider Y) both provide shared physical servers that host multiple virtual servers for other cloud consumers.

The virtual sewers on Cloud X are accessed directly, whereas the virtual servers on Cloud Y are accessed via an automated scaling listener. On Cloud X, virtual servers are pre-configured to support a specific amount of concurrent cloud service consumers. When this threshold is exceeded, cloud service consumer requests are rejected. Due to the use of the automated scaling listener, virtual sewers on Cloud Y can provide a greater level of elasticity.

The hourly cost to the cloud consumer to use a virtual server on Cloud X is half that of the cost to use a virtual sewer on Cloud Y. Within a one month period, Cloud Provider X bases its hourly charge on the maximum number of virtual sewers used. Within a one month period, Cloud Provider Y bases its hourly charges on actual virtual sewer usage. Cloud Provider Y charges $20 for each hour that a cloud consumer uses a virtual server.


The cloud consumer predicts its monthly usage requirements to be as follows:


The cloud consumer is required choose the cloud provider with the lowest on-going cost based on its predicted usage. Which of the following statements accurately calculates the on-going usage costs of Cloud Providers X and Y and correctly states the cloud provider that the cloud consumer must choose?

  1. The total usage duration is (10 + 20 + 70) hours = 100 hours.
    The actual usage is (10 X 6)+ (20 X 4) + (70 X 2) hours = 280 hours.
    The cost of using virtual servers from Cloud ProviderX is 100X6X$10 = $6,000. The cost of using virtual servers from Cloud Provider Y is 280 X $20 = $5,600. The cloud consumer must therefore choose Cloud Provider Y.
  2. The total usage duration is (10 + 20 + 70) hours = 100 hours.
    The actual usage is ((10 X 6) + (20 X 4) + (70 X 2)) x ((2 + 4 + 6) /3) hours = 1,120 hours The cost of using virtual servers from Cloud Provider Xis10QX6X$10 = $6,000.
    The cost of using virtual sewers from Cloud Provider Y is 1,120 X $20 = $22,400. The cloud consumer must therefore choose Cloud Provider X.
  3. The total usage duration is (10 + 20 + 70) hours = 100 hours.
    The actual usage is ((10 X 6) + (20 X 4) + (70 X 2)) x ((2 + 4 + 6) /3) hours = 1,120 hours The cost of using virtual servers from Cloud Provider X is 6 X 100 X $10 = $6,000.
    The cost of using virtual servers from Cloud Provider Y is 1,120 X $20 = $22,400. The cloud consumer must therefore choose Cloud Provider Y.
  4. The total usage duration is (10 + 20 + 70) x 12 hours = 1.200 hours. The actual usage is (10X6) + (20X4) + (70X2) hours = 280 server hours.
    The cost of using virtual servers from Cloud Provider Xis12X100X5X$10 = $60,000. The cost of using virtual servers from Cloud Provider Y is 280 X $20 = $5,600.
    The cloud consumer must therefore choose Cloud Provider Y.

Answer(s): A



Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1) that resides in Cloud X. a private cloud owned by the same organization acting as Cloud Consumer A. Cloud Service A processes the message from Cloud Service Consumer A and then sends back a response with the requested data (2). Next, Cloud Service Consumer A sends a message containing some of this data to Cloud Service B (3), which resides in public Cloud Y that is owned by Cloud Provider Y. After processing the message. Cloud Service B sends back a response with additional data to Cloud Service Consumer A (4). Finally, Cloud Service Consumer A writes the data it collected from Cloud Services A and B to Database A (5). Recently, Cloud Service Consumer A has been required to access Cloud Services A and B at a significantly higher rate, sometimes over 1,000 times within a given workday. This increased usage has not affected Cloud Service B' s performance. Cloud Service A, however, has been generating runtime exceptions, and responses to Cloud Service Consumer A have become increasingly slow and unreliable.

It is determined that this decline in performance is due to infrastructure limitations within private Cloud X' s environment. Instead of investing in new infrastructure for Cloud X, it is decided to explore the feasibility of moving Cloud Service A to Cloud Y instead.

Which of the following statements describe valid financial considerations that can be taken into account for assessing the feasibility of this move?

  1. Moving Cloud Service A to Cloud Y will result in the need for Cloud Service A to undergo integration testing to determine how well it can function within Cloud Y and what changes may need to be made to Cloud Service A in order for it to behave as expected. The integration testing and the subsequent changes required for Cloud Service A to function correctly within Cloud Y will incur integration costs that need to be budgeted for.
  2. Because, in this scenario, the cost of capital is comprised of the up-front costs added to the ongoing costs, the cost of capital required to move Cloud Service A to Cloud Y will be higher than upgrading Cloud X to accommodate Cloud Service A' s increased usage.
  3. If the existing infrastructure that currently resides in private Cloud X was purchased specifically in support of Cloud Service A, then there may be a financial loss resulting from moving Cloud Service A out of Cloud X. This can be considered sunk costs that need to be evaluated.
  4. By moving Cloud Service A to Cloud Y, there may be a decrease in operational governance control over the Cloud Service A implementation. This can increase locked-in costs because Cloud Consumer A may be forced to form dependencies upon proprietary tools used to configure and maintain the Cloud Service A implementation.

Answer(s): A,C,D



Cloud Provider Y owns Cloud Y, which provides a set of cloud services, virtual servers and one physical server. Cloud Services A and B are hosted on Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Physical Server A. Physical Server A also hosts Virtual Server B, which hosts redundant implementations of Cloud Services A and B for load balancing purposes. Cloud Service ConsumerA is accessing Cloud Service A located on Virtual Server A. Cloud Service Consumer B is accessing Cloud Service B located on Virtual Server B. Cloud Service Consumers A and B are both owned by Cloud Consumer X.
Cloud Consumer X has recently complained that Cloud Services A and B have become less available than what is guaranteed in their service level agreements (SLAs). Cloud Provider Y launches an investigation that reveals that Virtual Servers A and B have been subjected to denial of service attacks. This is confirmed as the cause of the decline in the availability of Cloud Services A and B.

Which of the following statements describes a solution that can increase the availability of Cloud Services A and B?

  1. Cloud Provider Y can implement the identity and access management mechanism to mitigate denial of service attacks and can further implement the failover system mechanism (by introducing a redundant physical server with redundant virtual servers) so that when an attack is successful on a given virtual server, a redundant virtual server can take its place.
  2. Cloud Provider Y can move Cloud Service B to Virtual Server A, thereby positioning Virtual Server B as a redundant fallback server used when Virtual Server A is successfully attacked. Similarly, Cloud Provider Yean move Cloud Service A to Virtual Server B, so that Virtual Server A acts as a redundant fallback server for when Virtual Server B is successfully attacked.
  3. Cloud Provider Y can implement a cloud bursting system, whereby Cloud Service A on Virtual Server B automatically takes the place of Cloud Service A on Virtual Server A when that service fails. Similarity, Cloud Service B on Virtual Server A can then automatically take the place of Cloud Service B on Virtual Server A when that service fails.
  4. Cloud Provider Y can introduce a single sign-on mechanism for Virtual Server A to mitigate denial of service threats. The automated scaling listener can then be implemented on Virtual Server B in order to limit the number of instances of Cloud Services A and B. This will prevent Virtual Server B from overloading due to denial of service attacks.

Answer(s): A



Cloud X (owned by Cloud Provider X) provides Physical Server A which hosts Virtual Servers A and B. Virtual Server B hosts Ready-Made Environments A and B. Cloud Service Consumer A uses Virtual Server A as part of an IaaS leasing agreement in which Cloud Consumer A is charged a fixed monthly fee for unlimited access. Cloud Service Consumers B and C use Ready-Made Environments A and B respectively as part of a PaaS leasing agreement based on per-minute usage fees. In both cases, access is monitored via Pay-For-Use Monitor A, which keeps track of log-in and log-out times in order to calculate the usage charges that are billed to Cloud Consumers B and C.
Virtual Server A begins generating a series of exceptions. Soon thereafter, Virtual Server B becomes destabilized, resulting in further exceptions being raised in Ready-Made Environments A and B. Cloud Service Consumers B and C receive a series of error messages until both of their connections are dropped Finally, Physical Server A shuts down completely. A subsequent investigation reveals that Virtual Server A was the victim of a security attack performed by a malicious cloud service consumer, the attacker generated increased loads of external communication requests on Virtual Server A and the underlying network, causing Physical ServerA (along with Virtual Server B) to eventually shut down.


Which of the following statements accurately identifies the type of security threat that corresponds to the described attack - and -provides a solution that can directly mitigate this type of security threat within Cloud X?

  1. Virtual Server A was subjected to a denial of service attack that can be mitigated by implementing the encryption and digital signature mechanisms.
  2. Virtual Server A was subjected to an insufficient authorization attack that can be mitigated by implementing the digital signature and hardened virtual server image mechanisms.
  3. Virtual Server A was subjected to a denial of service attack that can be mitigated by implementing the hardened virtual server image and identity and access management mechanisms.
  4. Virtual Server A was subjected to an insufficient authorization attack that can be mitigated by implementing the single sign-on mechanism.

Answer(s): C



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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