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APMG International ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Dumps in PDF

Free APMG International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Real Questions (page: 2)

ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation PDF — 50 Questions

What is the name of the control clause used to control information security breaches within Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?

  1. Information security event reporting
  2. Information security event management
  3. Response to information security events
  4. Reporting information security incidents

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A in ISO/IEC 27001 refers directly to ISO/IEC 27002 for control guidance. In ISO/IEC 27002:2022, Clause 6.8 is titled:
“Information security event reporting – Information security events should be reported through appropriate management channels as quickly as possible.”
This control ensures breaches, incidents, or suspected issues are reported for action. The other options (B, C, D) are not the exact titles in Annex A. The official title is Information security event reporting, confirming Answer(s): A.



Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
When planning the ISMS, the organization is specifically required to plan actions to address risks and opportunities and how to [ ? ] these actions.

  1. communicate
  2. apply competent resources to
  3. improve the effectiveness of
  4. evaluate the effectiveness of

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Clause 6.1.1 (Planning) states:
“The organization shall plan:
d) actions to address these risks and opportunities; and e) how to:
integrate and implement the actions into its ISMS processes; and evaluate the effectiveness of these actions.”
This confirms the missing words are “evaluate the effectiveness of”. Communication (A), applying resources (B), and improving effectiveness (C) are important concepts elsewhere but not the direct requirement stated in this clause.



Who determines the number of days required for a certification audit?

  1. The management representative from the organization to be audited
  2. The external auditor from the Certification Body who will undertake the audit
  3. The lead internal auditor from the organization to be audited
  4. Both the management representative and the external auditor together

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Certification audits are carried out by Certification Bodies (CBs), not the organization itself. ISO/IEC 27001 requires external certification audits to be independent, impartial, and objective. According to ISO/IEC 27006 (Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of ISMS), the Certification Body determines the audit duration and number of audit days based on factors such as organizational size, complexity, scope, and risk environment. This ensures consistency across organizations and prevents manipulation by the auditee. ISO/IEC 27001 Clause 9.2 and 9.3 address internal audit and management review, but the determination of certification audit days is outside the organization’s control; it rests solely with the accredited Certification Body auditors. Thus, Answer(s): B is correct, as the CB’s external auditor formally calculates and assigns the audit


time.



Which ISMS documentation is part of the minimum scope of documented information required to be managed and controlled?

  1. Records of management decisions related to continual improvement
  2. Third party information security awareness materials
  3. The budget assigned to operate the ISMS and its related allocations
  4. A statement of correspondence between other ISO standards and the ISMS

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Clause 7.5 (Documented Information) specifies that organizations must maintain documentation necessary for the effectiveness of the ISMS. Additionally, Clause 9.3 (Management Review) requires “records of decisions related to continual improvement opportunities” as an output of management review. This is a core requirement and forms part of the documented information that must be retained and controlled. Third-party materials (B), budgets (C), and cross-reference statements to other ISO standards (D) are not required by ISO/IEC 27001. Only documents that directly demonstrate compliance, decision-making, and continual improvement are mandated. Therefore, the verified minimum required documentation includes records of management review decisions related to continual improvement, confirming Answer(s): A.



To whom are the information security policies required to be communicated, according to the control in Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?

  1. Top management
  2. Only staff with accountability for ISMS operation
  3. Employees within the scope of the ISMS
  4. Relevant personnel and relevant interested parties

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) clearly specifies:
“Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties…”
This means the communication obligation is not limited to top management (A) or only ISMS staff (B), nor does it stop at employees only (C). Instead, ISO/IEC 27001/27002 mandate a broader scope: all relevant personnel and relevant interested parties must be informed. This ensures both internal stakeholders (employees, contractors, temporary staff) and external interested parties (suppliers, partners, regulators, customers, etc.) receive the right policy communications where applicable. Therefore, the correct and verified answer is D.



Which International Standard can be used to implement an integrated management system with ISO/IEC 27001?

  1. ISO/IEC 27003
  2. ISO/IEC 27013
  3. ISO 9001
  4. None of the above

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

ISO/IEC 27013 provides specific guidance on the integration of ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management) and ISO/IEC 20000-1 (IT Service Management). It offers practical advice for organizations seeking a unified management system approach.
While ISO/IEC 27003 (A) provides guidance on ISMS implementation, it does not address integration. ISO 9001 (C) is the Quality Management Standard and can be integrated, but the specific standard designed for integrating 27001 with ITSM is ISO/IEC 27013.
Therefore, the correct answer is B: ISO/IEC 27013, as it is explicitly published for this purpose.



Which action must top management take to provide evidence of its commitment to the establishment, operation and improvement of the ISMS?

  1. Communicating feedback from interested parties to the organization
  2. Ensuring information security objectives are established
  3. Producing a risk assessment report
  4. Implementing the actions from internal audits

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Clause 5.1 (Leadership and Commitment) requires top management to demonstrate leadership by:
“ensuring the information security policy and the information security objectives are established and are compatible with the strategic direction of the organization;”
“ensuring the integration of the ISMS requirements into the organization’s processes;”
“ensuring that the resources needed for the ISMS are available;”
Among the options, the one explicitly mandated is ensuring that information security objectives are established. Risk assessments (C) and implementing audit actions (D) are responsibilities of management but not the direct leadership evidence required in Clause 5.1. Communicating interested party feedback (A) is relevant but not specifically cited as leadership evidence. Thus, the verified answer is B.



Which information is required to be included in the Statement of Applicability?

  1. The scope and boundaries of the ISMS
  2. The risk assessment approach of the organization
  3. The criteria against which risk will be evaluated
  4. The justification for including each information security control

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Clause 6.1.3 (d) requires that the organization “produce a Statement of Applicability that contains the necessary controls (see Annex A), and justification for inclusions, whether they are implemented or not, and the justification for exclusions.”
This is the defining requirement of the SoA: it documents which Annex A controls are relevant, which are implemented, and the justification for inclusion/exclusion.
While the ISMS scope (A) is documented in Clause 4.3, and risk evaluation criteria (C) are defined in Clause 6.1.2, these do not belong in the SoA. The SoA does not describe the full risk assessment approach (B); that is part of the risk assessment methodology. Therefore, the mandatory requirement for the SoA is justification for including (or excluding) each information security control.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

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United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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UNITED STATES
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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

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Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

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Anonymous
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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

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INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

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INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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