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Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate SAA-C03 SAA-C02 Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon SAA-C02 Real Questions (page: 13)

SAA-C02 PDF — 1019 Questions

A company has a large Microsoft SharePoint deployment running on-premises that requires Microsoft Windows shared file storage. The company wants to migrate this workload to the AWS Cloud and is considering various storage options. The storage solution must be highly available and integrated with Active Directory for access control.
Which solution will satisfy these requirements?

  1. Configure Amazon EFS storage and set the Active Directory domain for authentication.
  2. Create an SMB file share on an AWS Storage Gateway file gateway in two Availability Zones.
  3. Create an Amazon S3 bucket and configure Microsoft Windows Server to mount it as a volume.
  4. Create an Amazon FSx for Windows File Server file system on AWS and set the Active Directory domain for authentication.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

FSx for Windows File Server provides a fully managed Windows file server with native SMB support and native integration with Active Directory for authentication and access control, meeting high availability through multi-AZ replication. A) EFS supports NFS/SMB with AD integration limited; but not native Windows AD integration for SharePoint workloads. B) Storage Gateway file gateway in two AZs provides SMB access but uses on-prem gateway model and may add complexity; not as seamless as managed FSx for Windows with AD. C) S3 with Windows mounting is not a native Windows file system and lacks integrated AD authentication. D) FSx for Windows File Server directly satisfies Windows-based file shares with AD integration and high availability.



An image-processing company has a web application that users use to upload images. The application uploads the images into an Amazon S3 bucket. The company has set up S3 event notifications to publish the object creation events to an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) standard queue. The SQS queue serves as the event source for an AWS Lambda function that processes the images and sends the results to users through email.
Users report that they are receiving multiple email messages for every uploaded image. A solutions architect determines that SQS messages are invoking the Lambda function more than once, resulting in multiple email messages.
What should the solutions architect do to resolve this issue with the LEAST operational overhead?

  1. Set up long polling in the SQS queue by increasing the ReceiveMessage wait time to 30 seconds.
  2. Change the SQS standard queue to an SQS FIFO queue. Use the message deduplication ID to discard duplicate messages.
  3. Increase the visibility timeout in the SQS queue to a value that is greater than the total of the function timeout and the batch window timeout.
  4. Modify the Lambda function to delete each message from the SQS queue immediately after the message is read before processing.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The correct answer is C. Increasing the SQS queue visibility timeout to exceed the sum of the Lambda function timeout and batch window ensures that a message is not picked up again while still being processed, preventing duplicate Lambda executions and hence duplicate emails. A) Long polling reduces empty receives but does not prevent concurrent processing or duplicate invocations. B) Switching to FIFO with deduplication is unnecessary overhead for this issue and standard SQS already supports at-least-once delivery with potential duplicates; deduplication is time-based and not for idempotency of processing. D) Deleting messages before processing risks losing messages if processing fails, causing data loss and retries.



A company is implementing a shared storage solution for a gaming application that is hosted in an on-premises data center. The company needs the ability to use Lustre clients to access data. The solution must be fully managed.
Which solution meets these requirements?

  1. Create an AWS Storage Gateway file gateway. Create a file share that uses the required client protocol. Connect the application server to the file share.
  2. Create an Amazon EC2 Windows instance. Install and configure a Windows file share role on the instance. Connect the application server to the file share.
  3. Create an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system, and configure it to support Lustre. Attach the file system to the origin server. Connect the application server to the file system.
  4. Create an Amazon FSx for Lustre file system. Attach the file system to the origin server. Connect the application server to the file system.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The correct answer is D.
D) FSx for Lustre provides a fully managed Lustre file system that can be mounted by Lustre clients, meeting the Lustre access and fully managed requirements.
A) Storage Gateway file gateway is not Lustre native and does not provide Lustre client access; it’s for NFS/SMB interfaces to on-prem apps.
B) An EC2 Windows instance is not fully managed and does not deliver a managed Lustre service.
C) EFS can be used for POSIX but does not support Lustre and is not Lustre-compatible.



A company's containerized application runs on an Amazon EC2 instance. The application needs to download security certificates before it can communicate with other business applications. The company wants a highly secure solution to encrypt and decrypt the certificates in near real time. The solution also needs to store data in highly available storage after the data is encrypted.
Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?

  1. Create AWS Secrets Manager secrets for encrypted certificates. Manually update the certificates as needed. Control access to the data by using fine-grained IAM access.
  2. Create an AWS Lambda function that uses the Python cryptography library to receive and perform encryption operations. Store the function in an Amazon S3 bucket.
  3. Create an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer managed key. Allow the EC2 role to use the KMS key for encryption operations. Store the encrypted data on Amazon S3.
  4. Create an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer managed key. Allow the EC2 role to use the KMS key for encryption operations. Store the encrypted data on Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The correct answer is C.
A) Secrets Manager adds management overhead for rotating and storing certificates; not as streamlined for near real-time encryption/decryption with EC2 workloads as using KMS. B) A Lambda-based approach increases latency and operational complexity; storing code and managing cryptography locally is less robust than using KMS. C) Uses a KMS customer-managed key with EC2 IAM for on-demand encryption/decryption, and stores encrypted data in S3 for highly available, durable object storage, meeting near real-time needs with minimal ops. D) Storing encrypted data on EBS ties data lifecycle to a single EC2 instance and reduces persistence and availability compared with S3’s object storage.



A solutions architect is designing a VPC with public and private subnets. The VPC and subnets use IPv4 CIDR blocks. There is one public subnet and one private subnet in each of three Availability Zones (AZs) for high availability. An internet gateway is used to provide internet access for the public subnets. The private subnets require access to the internet to allow Amazon EC2 instances to download software updates.
What should the solutions architect do to enable Internet access for the private subnets?

  1. Create three NAT gateways, one for each public subnet in each AZ. Create a private route table for each AZ that forwards non-VPC traffic to the NAT gateway in its AZ.
  2. Create three NAT instances, one for each private subnet in each AZ. Create a private route table for each AZ that forwards non-VPC traffic to the NAT instance in its AZ.
  3. Create a second internet gateway on one of the private subnets. Update the route table for the private subnets that forward non-VPC traffic to the private internet gateway.
  4. Create an egress-only internet gateway on one of the public subnets. Update the route table for the private subnets that forward non-VPC traffic to the egress-only Internet gateway.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Public subnets use an Internet Gateway; private subnets require outbound internet access via NAT. A correctly implements NAT in each AZ to preserve HA: three NAT gateways in public subnets, with private subnets’ route tables directing non-VPC traffic to the NAT gateway in the same AZ. This provides scalable, managed NAT with high availability.
A) Correct: per-AZ NAT gateways ensure private subnets can reach the internet for updates while remaining non-routable from the internet.
B) NAT instances are self-managed and require maintenance; using three adds operational overhead and single AZ failure risk.
C) A second internet gateway is not supported; private subnets cannot route to an Internet Gateway directly.
D) Egress-only gateways are for IPv6; private IPv4 traffic cannot rely on this for general internet egress.



A company wants to migrate an on-premises data center to AWS. The data center hosts an SFTP server that stores its data on an NFS-based file system. The server holds 200 GB of data that needs to be transferred. The server must be hosted on an Amazon EC2 instance that uses an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system.
Which combination of steps should a solutions architect take to automate this task? (Choose two.)

  1. Launch the EC2 instance into the same Availability Zone as the EFS file system.
  2. Install an AWS DataSync agent in the on-premises data center.
  3. Create a secondary Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume on the EC2 instance for the data.
  4. Manually use an operating system copy command to push the data to the EC2 instance.
  5. Use AWS DataSync to create a suitable location configuration for the on-premises SFTP server.

Answer(s): B,E

Explanation:

DataSync provides a scalable, automated method to transfer on-premises data to an EFS-backed EC2 environment, and setting up the on-premises DataSync agent enables this integration and migration.
A) Wrong: EC2 and EFS do not require being in the same AZ for DataSync; EFS is accessible across AZs within the same region, and this is not a distinct migration requirement.
B) Correct: Installing a DataSync agent in the on-premises data center enables discovery and transfer to the target EFS through DataSync.
C) Wrong: Using a secondary EBS volume on the EC2 instance adds management overhead and is unnecessary when targeting EFS via DataSync.
D) Wrong: Manual OS copy is non-automated and error-prone, not suitable for automated migration at scale.
E) Correct: DataSync can configure a location for the on-premises SFTP data source, enabling automated transfer to EFS-backed storage.



A company has an AWS Glue extract, transform, and load (ETL) job that runs every day at the same time. The job processes XML data that is in an Amazon S3 bucket. New data is added to the S3 bucket every day. A solutions architect notices that AWS Glue is processing all the data during each run.
What should the solutions architect do to prevent AWS Glue from reprocessing old data?

  1. Edit the job to use job bookmarks.
  2. Edit the job to delete data after the data is processed.
  3. Edit the job by setting the NumberOfWorkers field to 1.
  4. Use a FindMatches machine learning (ML) transform.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The correct answer is A. AWS Glue job bookmarks track processed data and only process new or changed records in subsequent runs, preventing reprocessing of old XML data when the job runs on a fixed schedule.
B is incorrect because deleting processed data is destructive and not a recommended ETL pattern; it would remove data rather than control reprocessing.
C is incorrect because NumberOfWorkers only affects throughput and parallelism, not whether previously processed data is re-read.
D is incorrect because FindMatches ML transform is for deduplication or relationship finding, not for preventing reprocessing of previously processed data.



A solutions architect must design a highly available infrastructure for a website. The website is powered by Windows web servers that run on Amazon EC2 instances. The solutions architect must implement a solution that can mitigate a large-scale DDoS attack that originates from thousands of IP addresses. Downtime is not acceptable for the website.
Which actions should the solutions architect take to protect the website from such an attack? (Choose two.)

  1. Use AWS Shield Advanced to stop the DDoS attack.
  2. Configure Amazon GuardDuty to automatically block the attackers.
  3. Configure the website to use Amazon CloudFront for both static and dynamic content.
  4. Use an AWS Lambda function to automatically add attacker IP addresses to VPC network ACLs.
  5. Use EC2 Spot Instances in an Auto Scaling group with a target tracking scaling policy that is set to 80% CPU utilization.

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

Amazon CloudFront and Shield Advanced provide scalable, at-edge DDoS protection and caching that mitigate large-scale attacks with minimal downtime. A) Shield Advanced offers DDoS detection and mitigation for AWS resources, suitable for high-traffic, volumetric attacks. C) CloudFront distributes traffic, accelerates content, and absorbs/mitigates DDoS at edge, protecting origin. B) GuardDuty is a threat detection service, not an automatic blocker for inbound traffic. D) Dynamically updating VPC NACLs via Lambda is risky, brittle, and not scalable for large, rapid DDoS. E) Spot Instances don’t address DDoS mitigation and can undermine availability.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
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