Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional SAP-C02 AWS-CERTIFIED-SOLUTIONS-ARCHITECT-PROFESSIONAL Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon AWS-CERTIFIED-SOLUTIONS-ARCHITECT-PROFESSIONAL Real Questions (page: 3)

A company has a web application that allows users to upload short videos. The videos are stored on Amazon EBS volumes and analyzed by custom recognition software for categorization.

The website contains static content that has variable traffic with peaks in certain months. The architecture consists of Amazon EC2 instances running in an Auto Scaling group for the web application and EC2 instances running in an Auto Scaling group to process an Amazon SQS queue. The company wants to re-architect the application to reduce operational overhead using AWS managed services where possible and remove dependencies on third-party software.

Which solution meets these requirements?

  1. Use Amazon ECS containers for the web application and Spot instances for the Auto Scaling group that processes the SQS queue. Replace the custom software with Amazon Rekognition to categorize the videos.
  2. Store the uploaded videos in Amazon EFS and mount the file system to the EC2 instances for the web application. Process the SQS queue with an AWS Lambda function that calls the Amazon Rekognition API to categorize the videos.
  3. Host the web application in Amazon S3. Store the uploaded videos in Amazon S3. Use S3 event notification to publish events to the SQS queue. Process the SQS queue with an AWS Lambda function that calls the Amazon Rekognition API to categorize the videos.
  4. Use AWS Elastic Beanstalk to launch EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group for the web application and launch a worker environment to process the SQS queue. Replace the custom software with Amazon Rekognition to categorize the videos.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

C. Host the web application in Amazon S3. Store the uploaded videos in Amazon S3. Use S3 event notification to publish events to the SQS queue. Process the SQS queue with an AWS Lambda function that calls the Amazon Rekognition API to categorize the videos is the correct solution because it reduces operational overhead by leveraging AWS managed services. Hosting the static web content in Amazon S3 removes the need for EC2 instances for the web app, and storing uploaded videos in S3 simplifies the storage solution. Using S3 event notifications to trigger an SQS queue ensures the videos are processed efficiently, and AWS Lambda coupled with Amazon Rekognition provides a scalable, managed solution for video analysis, replacing the custom recognition software.



A company has a serverless application comprised of Amazon CloudFront, Amazon API Gateway, and AWS Lambda functions. The current deployment process of the application code is to create a new version number of the Lambda function and run an AWS CLI script to update. If the new function version has errors, another CLI script reverts by deploying the previous working version of the function. The company would like to decrease the time to deploy new versions of the application logic provided by the Lambda functions, and also reduce the time to detect and revert when errors are identified.

How can this be accomplished?

  1. Create and deploy nested AWS CloudFormation stacks with the parent stack consisting of the AWS CloudFront distribution and API Gateway, and the child stack containing the Lambda function. For changes to Lambda, create an AWS CloudFormation change set and deploy; if errors are triggered, revert the AWS CloudFormation change set to the previous version.
  2. Use AWS SAM and built-in AWS CodeDeploy to deploy the new Lambda version, gradually shift traffic to the new version, and use pre-traffic and post-traffic test functions to verify code. Rollback if Amazon CloudWatch alarms are triggered.
  3. Refactor the AWS CLI scripts into a single script that deploys the new Lambda version. When deployment is completed, the script tests execute. If errors are detected, revert to the previous Lambda version.
  4. Create and deploy an AWS CloudFormation stack that consists of a new API Gateway endpoint that references the new Lambda version. Change the CloudFront origin to the new API Gateway endpoint, monitor errors and if detected, change the AWS CloudFront origin to the previous API Gateway endpoint.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

B) Use AWS SAM and built-in AWS CodeDeploy to deploy the new Lambda version, gradually shift traffic to the new version, and use pre-traffic and post-traffic test functions to verify code. Rollback if Amazon CloudWatch alarms are triggered is the correct solution because AWS SAM (Serverless Application Model) integrates seamlessly with AWS CodeDeploy to allow safe, automated deployments of Lambda functions. The gradual traffic shifting feature minimizes the risk of deployment failures by slowly routing traffic to the new version while monitoring for errors. If an issue arises, automatic rollback can occur based on CloudWatch alarms, reducing deployment time and ensuring minimal disruption. This approach also provides better control over traffic and error detection.



A company is planning to store a large number of archived documents and make the documents available to employees through the corporate intranet. Employees will access the system by connecting through a client VPN service that is attached to a VPC. The data must not be accessible to the public.

The documents that the company is storing are copies of data that is held on physical media elsewhere. The number of requests will be low. Availability and speed of retrieval are not concerns of the company.

Which solution will meet these requirements at the LOWEST cost?

  1. Create an Amazon S3 bucket. Configure the S3 bucket to use the S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA) storage class as default. Configure the S3 bucket for website hosting. Create an S3 interface endpoint. Configure the S3 bucket to allow access only through that endpoint.
  2. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance that runs a web server. Attach an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system to store the archived data in the EFS One Zone-Infrequent Access (EFS One Zone-IA) storage class Configure the instance security groups to allow access only from private networks.
  3. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance that runs a web server Attach an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume to store the archived data. Use the Cold HDD (sc1) volume type. Configure the instance security groups to allow access only from private networks.
  4. Create an Amazon S3 bucket. Configure the S3 bucket to use the S3 Glacier Deep Archive storage class as default. Configure the S3 bucket for website hosting. Create an S3 interface endpoint. Configure the S3 bucket to allow access only through that endpoint.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A) Create an Amazon S3 bucket. Configure the S3 bucket to use the S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA) storage class as default. Configure the S3 bucket for website hosting. Create an S3 interface endpoint. Configure the S3 bucket to allow access only through that endpoint is the correct answer because it offers the lowest cost option for infrequently accessed data while ensuring security and accessibility within the corporate network.

Using S3 One Zone-IA significantly reduces the cost by storing data in a single Availability Zone, which is ideal since availability and redundancy are not a concern. An S3 interface endpoint allows access to the data securely without exposing it to the public internet, adhering to the security requirement. Website hosting on S3 is not strictly necessary for this use case but could provide a simple interface for document access, adding convenience for employees.

This approach balances cost-efficiency with security, making it the best choice given the company's requirements.



A company is using an on-premises Active Directory service for user authentication. The company wants to use the same authentication service to sign in to the company’s AWS accounts, which are using AWS Organizations. AWS Site-to-Site VPN connectivity already exists between the on-premises environment and all the company’s AWS accounts.

The company’s security policy requires conditional access to the accounts based on user groups and roles. User identities must be managed in a single location.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Configure AWS IAM Identity Center (AWS Single Sign-On) to connect to Active Directory by using SAML 2.0. Enable automatic provisioning by using the System for Cross-domain Identity Management (SCIM) v2.0 protocol. Grant access to the AWS accounts by using attribute-based access controls (ABACs).
  2. Configure AWS IAM Identity Center (AWS Single Sign-On) by using IAM Identity Center as an identity source. Enable automatic provisioning by using the System for Cross-domain Identity Management (SCIM) v2.0 protocol. Grant access to the AWS accounts by using IAM Identity Center permission sets.
  3. In one of the company’s AWS accounts, configure AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) to use a SAML 2.0 identity provider. Provision IAM users that are mapped to the federated users. Grant access that corresponds to appropriate groups in Active Directory. Grant access to the required AWS accounts by using cross-account IAM users.
  4. In one of the company’s AWS accounts, configure AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) to use an OpenID Connect (OIDC) identity provider. Provision IAM roles that grant access to the AWS account for the federated users that correspond to appropriate groups in Active Directory. Grant access to the required AWS accounts by using cross-account IAM roles.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A) Configure AWS IAM Identity Center (AWS Single Sign-On) to connect to Active Directory by using SAML 2.0. Enable automatic provisioning by using the System for Cross-domain Identity Management (SCIM) v2.0 protocol. Grant access to the AWS accounts by using attribute-based access controls (ABACs) is the correct solution because it allows seamless integration with the on-premises Active Directory for user authentication. AWS IAM Identity Center (AWS SSO) can connect with the Active Directory through SAML 2.0, which supports the single sign-on functionality. SCIM 2.0 ensures automatic provisioning of users and groups, and ABAC allows for conditional access based on user attributes, aligning with the company’s security policy requirements.



A software company has deployed an application that consumes a REST API by using Amazon API Gateway, AWS Lambda functions, and an Amazon DynamoDB table. The application is showing an increase in the number of errors during PUT requests. Most of the PUT calls come from a small number of clients that are authenticated with specific API keys.

A solutions architect has identified that a large number of the PUT requests originate from one client. The API is noncritical, and clients can tolerate retries of unsuccessful calls. However, the errors are displayed to customers and are causing damage to the API’s reputation.

What should the solutions architect recommend to improve the customer experience?

  1. Implement retry logic with exponential backoff and irregular variation in the client application. Ensure that the errors are caught and handled with descriptive error messages.
  2. Implement API throttling through a usage plan at the API Gateway level. Ensure that the client application handles code 429 replies without error.
  3. Turn on API caching to enhance responsiveness for the production stage. Run 10-minute load tests. Verify that the cache capacity is appropriate for the workload.
  4. Implement reserved concurrency at the Lambda function level to provide the resources that are needed during sudden increases in traffic.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

B) Implement API throttling through a usage plan at the API Gateway level. Ensure that the client application handles code 429 replies without error is the correct answer. Throttling at the API Gateway level can limit the number of PUT requests a client can make, which will reduce the load on the system and minimize errors. By ensuring the client handles HTTP 429 (Too Many Requests) responses properly, retries can be performed when needed, preventing errors from being displayed to customers and improving the overall experience.

This solution ensures that clients making excessive requests are managed efficiently while allowing retries to maintain the application's integrity.



A company is running a data-intensive application on AWS. The application runs on a cluster of hundreds of Amazon EC2 instances. A shared file system also runs on several EC2 instances that store 200 TB of data. The application reads and modifies the data on the shared file system and generates a report. The job runs once monthly, reads a subset of the files from the shared file system, and takes about 72 hours to complete. The compute instances scale in an Auto Scaling group, but the instances that host the shared file system run continuously. The compute and storage instances are all in the same AWS Region.

A solutions architect needs to reduce costs by replacing the shared file system instances. The file system must provide high performance access to the needed data for the duration of the 72-hour run.

Which solution will provide the LARGEST overall cost reduction while meeting these requirements?

  1. Migrate the data from the existing shared file system to an Amazon S3 bucket that uses the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class. Before the job runs each month, use Amazon FSx for Lustre to create a new file system with the data from Amazon S3 by using lazy loading. Use the new file system as the shared storage for the duration of the job. Delete the file system when the job is complete.
  2. Migrate the data from the existing shared file system to a large Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume with Multi-Attach enabled. Attach the EBS volume to each of the instances by using a user data script in the Auto Scaling group launch template. Use the EBS volume as the shared storage for the duration of the job. Detach the EBS volume when the job is complete.
  3. Migrate the data from the existing shared file system to an Amazon S3 bucket that uses the S3 Standard storage class. Before the job runs each month, use Amazon FSx for Lustre to create a new file system with the data from Amazon S3 by using batch loading. Use the new file system as the shared storage for the duration of the job. Delete the file system when the job is complete.
  4. Migrate the data from the existing shared file system to an Amazon S3 bucket. Before the job runs each month, use AWS Storage Gateway to create a file gateway with the data from Amazon S3. Use the file gateway as the shared storage for the job. Delete the file gateway when the job is complete.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A) Migrate the data from the existing shared file system to an Amazon S3 bucket that uses the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class. Before the job runs each month, use Amazon FSx for Lustre to create a new file system with the data from Amazon S3 by using lazy loading. Use the new file system as the shared storage for the duration of the job. Delete the file system when the job is complete is the correct solution because it leverages Amazon S3 for cost-effective long-term storage with S3 Intelligent-Tiering. By using Amazon FSx for Lustre, the solution provides high-performance access to data during the 72-hour job, as Lustre is optimized for high-performance computing. Lazy loading ensures that only the necessary data is loaded as it's accessed, further optimizing costs. Deleting the file system after the job completes minimizes costs for the inactive periods.



A company is developing a new service that will be accessed using TCP on a static port. A solutions architect must ensure that the service is highly available, has redundancy across Availability Zones, and is accessible using the DNS name my.service.com, which is publicly accessible. The service must use fixed address assignments so other companies can add the addresses to their allow lists.

Assuming that resources are deployed in multiple Availability Zones in a single Region, which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Create Amazon EC2 instances with an Elastic IP address for each instance. Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) and expose the static TCP port. Register EC2 instances with the NLB. Create a new name server record set named my.service.com, and assign the Elastic IP addresses of the EC2 instances to the record set. Provide the Elastic IP addresses of the EC2 instances to the other companies to add to their allow lists.
  2. Create an Amazon ECS cluster and a service definition for the application. Create and assign public IP addresses for the ECS cluster. Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) and expose the TCP port. Create a target group and assign the ECS cluster name to the NL Create a new A record set named my.service.com, and assign the public IP addresses of the ECS cluster to the record set. Provide the public IP addresses of the ECS cluster to the other companies to add to their allow lists.
  3. Create Amazon EC2 instances for the service. Create one Elastic IP address for each Availability Zone. Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) and expose the assigned TCP port. Assign the Elastic IP addresses to the NLB for each Availability Zone. Create a target group and register the EC2 instances with the NLB. Create a new A (alias) record set named my.service.com, and assign the NLB DNS name to the record set.
  4. Create an Amazon ECS cluster and a service definition for the application. Create and assign public IP address for each host in the cluster. Create an Application Load Balancer (ALB) and expose the static TCP port. Create a target group and assign the ECS service definition name to the ALB. Create a new CNAME record set and associate the public IP addresses to the record set. Provide the Elastic IP addresses of the Amazon EC2 instances to the other companies to add to their allow lists.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

C) Create Amazon EC2 instances for the service. Create one Elastic IP address for each Availability Zone. Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) and expose the assigned TCP port. Assign the Elastic IP addresses to the NLB for each Availability Zone. Create a target group and register the EC2 instances with the NLB. Create a new A (alias) record set named my.service.com, and assign the NLB DNS name to the record set is the correct solution because it ensures high availability and redundancy across Availability Zones with a Network Load Balancer (NLB) that can handle static TCP ports. By using Elastic IPs in each Availability Zone, the company ensures that fixed IP addresses are used, allowing other companies to whitelist them. Associating the NLB DNS name with the A (alias) record satisfies the requirement for the DNS name my.service.com.



A company uses an on-premises data analytics platform. The system is highly available in a fully redundant configuration across 12 servers in the company’s data center.

The system runs scheduled jobs, both hourly and daily, in addition to one-time requests from users. Scheduled jobs can take between 20 minutes and 2 hours to finish running and have tight SLAs. The scheduled jobs account for 65% of the system usage. User jobs typically finish running in less than 5 minutes and have no SLA. The user jobs account for 35% of system usage. During system failures, scheduled jobs must continue to meet SLAs. However, user jobs can be delayed.

A solutions architect needs to move the system to Amazon EC2 instances and adopt a consumption-based model to reduce costs with no long-term commitments. The solution must maintain high availability and must not affect the SLAs.

Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

  1. Split the 12 instances across two Availability Zones in the chosen AWS Region. Run two instances in each Availability Zone as On-Demand Instances with Capacity Reservations. Run four instances in each Availability Zone as Spot Instances.
  2. Split the 12 instances across three Availability Zones in the chosen AWS Region. In one of the Availability Zones, run all four instances as On-Demand Instances with Capacity Reservations. Run the remaining instances as Spot Instances.
  3. Split the 12 instances across three Availability Zones in the chosen AWS Region. Run two instances in each Availability Zone as On-Demand Instances with a Savings Plan. Run two instances in each Availability Zone as Spot Instances.
  4. Split the 12 instances across three Availability Zones in the chosen AWS Region. Run three instances in each Availability Zone as On-Demand Instances with Capacity Reservations. Run one instance in each Availability Zone as a Spot Instance.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

D) Split the 12 instances across three Availability Zones in the chosen AWS Region. Run three instances in each Availability Zone as On-Demand Instances with Capacity Reservations. Run one instance in each Availability Zone as a Spot Instance is the correct solution because it ensures high availability by distributing instances across three Availability Zones while using On-Demand Instances with Capacity Reservations for the critical scheduled jobs that need to meet SLAs. The use of Spot Instances helps reduce costs, as they are ideal for non-SLA-bound user jobs that can be delayed. This approach strikes the right balance between cost-effectiveness and high availability for critical scheduled jobs.



Share your comments for Amazon AWS-CERTIFIED-SOLUTIONS-ARCHITECT-PROFESSIONAL exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

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