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Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Real Questions (page: 8)

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 PDF — 296 Questions

A real estate company is building an internal application so that real estate agents can upload photos and videos of various properties. The application will store these photos and videos in an Amazon S3 bucket as objects and will use Amazon DynamoDB to store corresponding metadata. The S3 bucket will be configured to publish all PUT events for new object uploads to an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue.

A compute cluster of Amazon EC2 instances will poll the SQS queue to find out about newly uploaded objects. The cluster will retrieve new objects, perform proprietary image and video recognition and classification update metadata in DynamoDB and replace the objects with new watermarked objects. The company does not want public IP addresses on the EC2 instances.

Which networking design solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively as application usage increases?

  1. Place the EC2 instances in a public subnet. Disable the Auto-assign Public IP option while launching the EC2 instances. Create an internet gateway. Attach the internet gateway to the VPC. In the public subnet's route table, add a default route that points to the internet gateway.
  2. Place the EC2 instances in a private subnet. Create a NAT gateway in a public subnet in the same Availability Zone. Create an internet gateway. Attach the internet gateway to the VPC. In the public subnet's route table, add a default route that points to the internet gateway
  3. Place the EC2 instances in a private subnet. Create an interface VPC endpoint for Amazon SQS. Create gateway VPC endpoints for Amazon S3 and DynamoDB.
  4. Place the EC2 instances in a private subnet. Create a gateway VPC endpoint for Amazon SQS. Create interface VPC endpoints for Amazon S3 and DynamoDB.

Answer(s): D



A company has an AWS Direct Connect connection between its on-premises data center in the United States (US) and workloads in the us-east-1 Region. The connection uses a transit VIF to connect the data center to a transit gateway in us-east-1.

The company is opening a new office in Europe with a new on-premises data center in England. A Direct Connect connection will connect the new data center with some workloads that are running in a single VPC in the eu-west-2 Region. The company needs to connect the US data center and us-east-1 with the Europe data center and eu-west-2. A network engineer must establish full connectivity between the data centers and Regions with the lowest possible latency.

How should the network engineer design the network architecture to meet these requirements?

  1. Connect the VPC in eu-west-2 with the Europe data center by using a Direct Connect gateway and a private VIF. Associate the transit gateway in us-east-1 with the same Direct Connect gateway. Enable SiteLink for the transit VIF and the private VIF.
  2. Connect the VPC in eu-west-2 to a new transit gateway. Connect the Europe data center to the new transit gateway by using a Direct Connect gateway and a new transit VIF. Associate the transit gateway in us-east- 1 with the same Direct Connect gateway. Enable SiteLink for both transit VIFs. Peer the two transit gateways.
  3. Connect the VPC in eu-west-2 to a new transit gateway. Connect the Europe data center to the new transit gateway by using a Direct Connect gateway and a new transit VIF. Create a new Direct Connect gateway.
    Associate the transit gateway in us-east-1 with the new Direct Connect gateway. Enable SiteLink for both transit VIFs. Peer the two transit gateways.
  4. Connect the VPC in eu-west-2 with the Europe data center by using a Direct Connect gateway and a private
    VIF. Create a new Direct Connect gateway. Associate the transit gateway in us-east-1 with the new Direct Connect gateway. Enable SiteLink for the transit VIF and the private VIF.

Answer(s): B



A network engineer has deployed an Amazon EC2 instance in a private subnet in a VPC. The VPC has no public subnet. The EC2 instance hosts application code that sends messages to an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. The subnet has the default network ACL with no modification applied. The EC2 instance has the default security group with no modification applied.

The SQS queue is not receiving messages.

Which of the following are possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

  1. The EC2 instance is not attached to an IAM role that allows write operations to Amazon SQS.
  2. The security group is blocking traffic to the IP address range used by Amazon SQS
  3. There is no interface VPC endpoint configured for Amazon SQS
  4. The network ACL is blocking return traffic from Amazon SQS
  5. There is no route configured in the subnet route table for the IP address range used by Amazon SQS

Answer(s): A,C



A network engineer needs to standardize a company's approach to centralizing and managing interface VPC endpoints for private communication with AWS services. The company uses AWS Transit Gateway for inter- VPC connectivity between AWS accounts through a hub-and-spoke model. The company's network services team must manage all Amazon Route 53 zones and interface endpoints within a shared services AWS account. The company wants to use this centralized model to provide AWS resources with access to AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) without sending traffic over the public internet.

What should the network engineer do to meet these requirements?

  1. In the shared services account, create an interface endpoint for AWS KMS. Modify the interface endpoint by disabling the private DNS name. Create a private hosted zone in the shared services account with an alias record that points to the interface endpoint. Associate the private hosted zone with the spoke VPCs in each AWS account.
  2. In the shared services account, create an interface endpoint for AWS KMS. Modify the interface endpoint by disabling the private DNS name. Create a private hosted zone in each spoke AWS account with an alias record that points to the interface endpoint. Associate each private hosted zone with the shared services AWS account.
  3. In each spoke AWS account, create an interface endpoint for AWS KMS. Modify each interface endpoint by disabling the private DNS name. Create a private hosted zone in each spoke AWS account with an alias record that points to each interface endpoint. Associate each private hosted zone with the shared services AWS account.
  4. In each spoke AWS account, create an interface endpoint for AWS KMS. Modify each interface endpoint by disabling the private DNS name. Create a private hosted zone in the shared services account with an alias record that points to each interface endpoint. Associate the private hosted zone with the spoke VPCs in each AWS account.

Answer(s): A



A development team is building a new web application in the AWS Cloud. The main company domain, example.com, is currently hosted in an Amazon Route 53 public hosted zone in one of the company's production AWS accounts.

The developers want to test the web application in the company's staging AWS account by using publicly resolvable subdomains under the example.com domain with the ability to create and delete DNS records as needed. Developers have full access to Route 53 hosted zones within the staging account, but they are prohibited from accessing resources in any of the production AWS accounts.

Which combination of steps should a network engineer take to allow the developers to create records under the example com domain? (Choose two.)

  1. Create a public hosted zone for example.com in the staging account
  2. Create a staging example.com NS record in the example.com domain. Populate the value with the name servers from the staging.example.com domain. Set the routing policy type to simple routing.
  3. Create a private hosted zone for staging.example.com in the staging account.
  4. Create an example.com NS record in the staging.example.com domain. Populate the value with the name servers from the example.com domain. Set the routing policy type to simple routing.
  5. Create a public hosted zone for staging.example.com in the staging account.

Answer(s): B,E



A company plans to deploy a two-tier web application to a new VPC in a single AWS Region. The company has configured the VPC with an internet gateway and four subnets. Two of the subnets are public and have default routes that point to the internet gateway. Two of the subnets are private and share a route table that does not have a default route.

The application will run on a set of Amazon EC2 instances that will be deployed behind an external Application Load Balancer. The EC2 instances must not be directly accessible from the internet. The application will use an Amazon S3 bucket in the same Region to store data. The application will invoke S3 GET API operations and S3 PUT API operations from the EC2 instances. A network engineer must design a VPC architecture that minimizes data transfer cost.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Deploy the EC2 instances in the public subnets. Create an S3 interface endpoint in the VPC. Modify the application configuration to use the S3 endpoint-specific DNS hostname.
  2. Deploy the EC2 instances in the private subnets. Create a NAT gateway in the VPC. Create default routes in the private subnets to the NAT gateway. Connect to Amazon S3 by using the NAT gateway.
  3. Deploy the EC2 instances in the private subnets. Create an S3 gateway endpoint in the VP Specify die route table of the private subnets during endpoint creation to create routes to Amazon S3.
  4. Deploy the EC2 instances in the private subnets. Create an S3 interface endpoint in the VPC. Modify the application configuration to use the S3 endpoint-specific DNS hostname.

Answer(s): C



A company has two AWS accounts one for Production and one for Connectivity. A network engineer needs to connect the Production account VPC to a transit gateway in the Connectivity account. The feature to auto accept shared attachments is not enabled on the transit gateway.

Which set of steps should the network engineer follow in each AWS account to meet these requirements?

  1. 1. In the Production account: Create a resource share in AWS Resource Access Manager for the transit gateway. Provide the Connectivity account ID. Enable the feature to allow external accounts
    2. In the Connectivity account: Accept the resource.
    3. In the Connectivity account: Create an attachment to the VPC subnets.
    4. In the Production account: Accept the attachment. Associate a route table with the attachment.
  2. 1. In the Production account: Create a resource share in AWS Resource Access Manager for the VPC subnets. Provide the Connectivity account ID. Enable the feature to allow external accounts.
    2. In the Connectivity account: Accept the resource.
    3. In the Production account: Create an attachment on the transit gateway to the VPC subnets.
    4. In the Connectivity account: Accept the attachment. Associate a route table with the attachment.
  3. 1. In the Connectivity account: Create a resource share in AWS Resource Access Manager for the VPC subnets. Provide the Production account ID. Enable the feature to allow external accounts.
    2. In the Production account: Accept the resource.
    3. In the Connectivity account: Create an attachment on the transit gateway to the VPC subnets.
    4. In the Production account: Accept the attachment. Associate a route table with the attachment.
  4. 1. In the Connectivity account: Create a resource share in AWS Resource Access Manager for the transit gateway. Provide the Production account ID Enable the feature to allow external accounts.
    2. In the Production account: Accept the resource.
    3. In the Production account: Create an attachment to the VPC subnets.
    4. In the Connectivity account: Accept the attachment. Associate a route table with the attachment.

Answer(s): B



A company is running multiple workloads on Amazon EC2 instances in public subnets. In a recent incident, an attacker exploited an application vulnerability on one of the EC2 instances to gain access to the instance. The company fixed the application and launched a replacement EC2 instance that contains the updated application.

The attacker used the compromised application to spread malware over the internet. The company became aware of the compromise through a notification from AWS. The company needs the ability to identify when an application that is deployed on an EC2 instance is spreading malware.

Which solution will meet this requirement with the LEAST operational effort?

  1. Use Amazon GuardDuty to analyze traffic patterns by inspecting DNS requests and VPC flow logs.
  2. Use Amazon GuardDuty to deploy AWS managed decoy systems that are equipped with the most recent malware signatures.
  3. Set up a Gateway Load Balancer. Run an intrusion detection system (IDS) appliance from AWS Marketplace on Amazon EC2 for traffic inspection.
  4. Configure Amazon Inspector to perform deep packet inspection of outgoing traffic.

Answer(s): A



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
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