AACE Certified Cost Professional CCP-AACE Dumps in PDF

Free AACE CCP-AACE Real Questions (page: 13)

The discount rate is a measure used to convert cash flow streams occurring to different points in time to a common base called the net present worth.
What is the discount rate based upon?

  1. The interest rate which client will have to pay on his loan
  2. Bank rate
  3. Inflation and interest rates
  4. The rate of inflation

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The discount rate reflects the time value of money and is based on both interest rates and inflation, capturing the combined effect of the cost of capital and the loss of purchasing power over time when converting future cash flows to present worth.



An owner advertised his villa for sale. An investor worked out an estimate on the basis that the villa could be rented out for $1000 per month. Maintenance charges and other taxes are estimated to be $1,500 per year. The tenant has to pay utility charges. The investor thinks that he can sell this villa for $100,000 after 6 years. Assuming that the minimum acceptable rate of return is 12%, answer the following question.
The villa could be recommended for purchase at all of the below-mentioned prices except:

  1. $93,500
  2. $92,800
  3. $94,500
  4. $90,5000

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The net annual income from the villa is calculated by subtracting annual maintenance and taxes from rental income. This net cash flow is discounted over six years at the minimum acceptable rate of return to determine its present value, and the expected resale value is also discounted to present value. The sum of these present values represents the maximum price the investor should be willing to pay. Any purchase price above this value would not meet the required return, making that option unacceptable.



The following question requires your selection of Scenario 1.2.104 from the right side of your split screen, using the drop down menu, to reference during your response/choice of response.
An estimate must be prepared to design and build a 200 ton per day (TPD) waste to energy plant. The plant will be located at Site B and is to be completed by the end of Year 6. A similar plant with a capacity of 150 TPD was completed at Site A in December 1999.
Escalation rates for water to energy plants are forecasted as:

Plants at Site B are estimated to cost 10% more than plants at Site A due to site conditions. Historical data indicates a cost/capacity factor of .75 for waste to energy plants.
How can the quality of a cost/capacity factor estimate be improved?

  1. Verify the equipment costs used in the estimate
  2. Verify the labor rates used in the estimate
  3. Validate labor productivity from recently completed projects
  4. Validate the capacity factor from similar, recently completed projects

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The accuracy of a cost/capacity factor estimate depends primarily on how well the exponent reflects real cost behavior for similar facilities. Validating the capacity factor using data from comparable, recently completed projects ensures that the scaling relationship between cost and capacity is appropriate and improves the reliability of the estimate.



AACE International defines _______________ as the primary activity that separates Value Methodology (VM) from other “improvement” practices and has the objective to develop the most beneficial areas for continuing study.

  1. Benefit/Cost ratio (B/C) method
  2. Function Analysis Phase
  3. Life cycle costs method (LCC)
  4. Net present worth method

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The Function Analysis Phase is the core activity that distinguishes Value Methodology from other improvement practices, as it systematically identifies and analyzes functions to determine where the greatest value improvement opportunities exist for further study.



Which statement best describes the constructability review for a project?

  1. The systematic application of recognized techniques which identify the functions of the product or service
  2. It concerned primarily with resource scheduling or organizational planning
  3. A method to reduce costs by considering alternate designs
  4. The review by a multi-discipline team to improve the methods of delivering the intended scope

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A constructability review involves a multidisciplinary team evaluating a project during planning and design to improve how the intended scope is executed, with the goal of enhancing constructability, efficiency, and overall project delivery.



A task has an early start of day 4, late start of day 14, early finish of day 10, and a late finish of day 20.
What is the task’s float?

  1. 4
  2. 10
  3. 9
  4. 20

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Task float is calculated as the difference between late start and early start, or equivalently between late finish and early finish. Using the given data, the available float is the difference between the late and early dates, which equals 10 days.



Develop a CPM method considering the below tasks and logical relationships. Use this information to answer the related questions.

What is the late finish date of activity 50?

  1. Day 47
  2. Day 38
  3. Day 28
  4. Day 37

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The project’s controlling finish is driven by activity 70. Working backward from the project completion, activity 70’s late start sets the latest allowable completion of its predecessors. Since activity 50 is an immediate predecessor of activity 70, its late finish must align with activity 70’s late start, which is Day 47.



The longest path depends upon relationships driving the timing of activity starts, therefore the following scheduling features should not be used in calculating the longest path.

  1. milestone activities
  2. activities with short durations
  3. activities with lag
  4. constraints, resource leveling, and interruptible activities

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The longest path method focuses strictly on logical relationships and activity durations that drive start and finish timing. Constraints, resource leveling, and interruptible activities artificially alter schedule dates and can mask the true logic-driven longest path, so they should be excluded when determining it.



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AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

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Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

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Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

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Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

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Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

i need to pass exam for VMware 2V0-11.25

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

great dumps to practice for the exam

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Adekunle willaims
6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

How reliable and relevant are these questions?? also i can see the last update here was January and definitely new questions would have emerged.

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