WGU Secure Software Design (D487, KEO1) Secure-Software-Design Dumps in PDF

Free WGU Secure-Software-Design Real Questions (page: 5)

A new product does not display personally identifiable information, will not let private documents be printed, and requires elevation of privilege to retrieve archive documents.
Which secure coding practice is this describing?

  1. Access control
  2. Data protection
  3. Input validation
  4. Authentication

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The secure coding practice being described is Access Control. This practice ensures that access to data and features within a system is restricted and controlled. The description given indicates that the product has mechanisms to prevent the display of personally identifiable information (PII), restrict the printing of private documents, and require elevated privileges to access archived documents. These are all measures to control who has access to what data and under what circumstances, which is the essence of access control.


Reference:

ISO/IEC 27018 Code of Practice for Protecting Personal Data in the Cloud1. NIST SP 800-122, Guide to Protecting the Confidentiality of Personally Identifiable Information (PII)2. ISO/IEC 29151:2017, Code of practice for personally identifiable information protection3.



Which secure coding practice involves clearing all local storage as soon as a user logs of for the night and will automatically log a user out after an hour of inactivity?

  1. Access control
  2. System configuration
  3. Communication security
  4. Session management

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The practice of clearing all local storage when a user logs off and automatically logging a user out after an hour of inactivity falls under the category of Session Management. This is a security measure designed to prevent unauthorized access to a user's session and to protect sensitive data that might be stored in the local storage. By clearing the local storage, any tokens, session identifiers, or other sensitive information are removed, reducing the risk of session hijacking or other attacks. The automatic logout feature ensures that inactive sessions do not remain open indefinitely, which could otherwise be exploited by attackers.


Reference:

The information aligns with the secure coding practices outlined by the OWASP Foundation1, and is supported by common practices in web development for managing sessions and local storage2.



Which software control test examines an application from a user perspective by providing a wide variety of input scenarios and inspecting the output?

  1. Dynamic
  2. Black box
  3. Static
  4. White box

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The software control test that examines an application from a user perspective by providing a wide variety of input scenarios and inspecting the output is known as black box testing. This testing method focuses on the functionality of the application rather than its internal structures or workings. Testers provide inputs and examine outputs without knowing how and where the inputs are worked upon. It's designed to test the system's external behavior. Black box testing is used to verify that the system meets the requirements and behaves as expected in various scenarios, including edge cases and incorrect input data. It helps in identifying discrepancies between the system's actual functionality and its specified requirements. This type of testing is applicable across various levels of software testing, including unit, integration, system, and acceptance testing. It is particularly useful for validating user stories and use cases during the software development process.
Since black box testing treats the software as a "black box", it does not require the tester to have knowledge of the programming languages or the system's implementation. This allows testers to objectively test the software's behavior and performance.


Reference:

The concept of black box testing is well-documented and is a standard practice in secure software design, as outlined by sources such as LambdaTest1 and other industry best practices.



Which DKEAD category has a risk rating based on the threat exploit's potential level of harm?

  1. Damage potential
  2. Reproducibility
  3. Affected users
  4. Exploitability

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The DKEAD category that has a risk rating based on the threat exploit's potential level of harm is Damage potential. This category assesses the total damage or impact that a threat could cause if it is exploited by an attacker. The risk rating in this category is determined by evaluating the severity of the potential damage, which could range from information disclosure to complete system destruction or loss of system availability.


Reference:

DREAD Threat Modeling1
OWASP Risk Rating Methodology2
DREAD Threat Modeling: An Introduction to Qualitative Risk Analysis3



What is a countermeasure to the web application security frame (ASF) authentication threat category?

  1. Role-based access controls restrict access
  2. Credentials and tokens are encrypted.
  3. Cookies have expiration timestamps.
  4. Sensitive information is scrubbed from error messages

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

ASF Authentication Threats: The Web Application Security Frame (ASF) authentication category encompasses threats related to how users and systems prove their identity to the application. This includes issues like weak passwords, compromised credentials, and inadequate access controls. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): RBAC is a well-established security principle that aligns closely with addressing authentication threats. It involves assigning users to roles and granting those roles specific permissions based on the principle of least privilege. This limits the attack surface and reduces the impact of a compromised user account.

Let's analyze the other options:
B . Credentials and tokens are encrypted: While vital for security, encryption primarily protects data at rest or in transit. It doesn't directly address authentication risks like brute-force attacks or weak password management.
C . Cookies have expiration timestamps: Expiring cookies are a good practice, but their primary benefit is session management rather than directly mitigating authentication-specific threats. D . Sensitive information is scrubbed from error messages: While essential for preventing information leakage, this practice doesn't address the core threats within the ASF authentication category.


Reference:

NIST Special Publication 800-53 Revision 4, Access Control (AC) Family:
(https://csrc.nist.gov/publications/detail/sp/800-53/rev-4/final) Details the importance of RBAC as a cornerstone of access control.
The Web Application Security Frame (ASF): (https://patents.google.com/patent/US7818788B2/en) Outlines the ASF categories, with authentication being one of the primary areas.



Which mitigation technique is used to fight against an identity spoofing threat?

  1. Require user authorization
  2. Filtering
  3. Audit trails
  4. Encryption

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

To combat identity spoofing threats, a mitigation technique that is often used is requiring user authorization. This involves implementing strong authentication methods to verify the identity of users before granting access to sensitive information or systems. Techniques such as two-factor authentication (2FA) or multi-factor authentication (MFA) are effective in reducing the risk of unauthorized access, as they require users to provide multiple pieces of evidence to confirm their identity, making it much harder for attackers to spoof an identity successfully.


Reference:

Best practices for preventing spoofing attacks, including the use of antivirus and firewall tools, and the importance of strong authentication methods like 2FA and MFA1. The National Security Agency's guidance on identity theft threats and mitigations, emphasizing the need for personal protection and strong authentication measures2. Discussion on the effectiveness of strong authentication methods in protecting against spoofing attacks3.
The role of comprehensive identity verification and authentication strategies in preventing AI- enhanced identity fraud4.



Which mitigation technique can be used to light against a threat where a user may gain access to administrator level functionality?

  1. Encryption
  2. Quality of service
  3. Hashes
  4. Run with least privilege

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The principle of running with the least privilege is a fundamental security concept that involves granting users only the permissions they need to perform their tasks and no more. This minimizes the risk of a user gaining access to administrator-level functionality that they are not authorized to use. By limiting the privileges of user accounts to the bare minimum necessary, the potential damage from various attacks, such as privilege escalation, is significantly reduced.


Reference:

The concept of least privilege is widely recognized as a critical security measure. Resources like Exabeam's article on preventing privilege escalation and TechTarget's guide on privilege escalation attacks provide insights into how enforcing least privilege can mitigate such threats12. These sources verify that running with the least privilege is an effective mitigation technique against the threat of unauthorized access to elevated privileges.



What is the privacy impact rating of an application that stores personally identifiable information, monitors users with ongoing transfers of anonymous data, and changes settings without notifying the user?

  1. P1 high privacy risk
  2. P2 moderate privacy risk
  3. P3 low privacy risk
  4. P4 no privacy risk

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The privacy impact rating for an application that stores personally identifiable information (PII), monitors users with ongoing transfers of anonymous data, and changes settings without notifying the user would be P1 high privacy risk. Storing PII already poses a significant risk due to the potential for data breaches and misuse. Monitoring users and transferring data, even if anonymous, increases the risk as it involves ongoing data collection. Changing settings without user notification is a serious privacy concern because it can lead to unauthorized data processing or sharing, further elevating the risk level.


Reference:

Practical Data Security and Privacy for GDPR and CCPA - ISACA1. Privacy risk assessment and privacy-preserving data monitoring2. How To Effectively Monitor Your Privacy Program: A New Series3.



Share your comments for WGU Secure-Software-Design exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

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R
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3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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J
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1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

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12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

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11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

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5/24/2025 12:54:15 AM

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