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WGU Managing Human Capital C202 Managing-Human-Capital Dumps in PDF

Free WGU Managing-Human-Capital Real Questions (page: 1)

Managing-Human-Capital PDF — 50 Questions

A manager and an employee go on a lunch break together. The manager tells the employee about another coworker that received discipline. The manager discloses to the employee that the coworker was reprimanded for poor performance.

Which part of this scenario involves an ethical dilemma?

  1. The employee going on a lunch break with the manager
  2. The manager disclosing the discipline of the coworker to the employee
  3. The manager having an unofficial one-on-one conversation with the employee
  4. The employee listening to what the manager shared

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Confidentiality Breach: The manager discussing the disciplinary actions taken against another employee violates the principle of confidentiality. Disciplinary actions are private matters and should only be shared with those directly involved or authorized personnel.

Professional Ethics: According to professional ethics, particularly in HR and management, sensitive information about employees should not be disclosed to others who do not have a legitimate need to know.

Trust and Morale: Such disclosures can erode trust within the team and negatively impact morale, as employees might feel their privacy is not respected.

Legal Implications: There could be potential legal implications if the disclosed information is used improperly or causes harm to the reputation of the disciplined employee.


Reference:

Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) Code of Ethical and Professional Standards

HR Confidentiality Policies and Best Practices



What must an organization that incorporates an ethics and compliance program that follows the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations enable all employees to do?

  1. Give ethical advice to coworkers
  2. Discipline employees for unethical conduct
  3. Publicly accuse coworkers of ethics violations
  4. Anonymously report unethical conduct

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations: These guidelines encourage organizations to implement effective ethics and compliance programs to prevent and detect violations of law.

Anonymous Reporting: A critical component of these programs is providing a mechanism for employees to report unethical conduct without fear of retaliation. Anonymity ensures that employees feel safe to report misconduct.

Encouraging Ethical Behavior: By enabling anonymous reporting, organizations foster an environment where ethical behavior is promoted, and issues can be addressed promptly.

Protection for Whistleblowers: This measure protects whistleblowers from potential backlash and ensures that the organization can identify and mitigate unethical practices effectively.


Reference:

Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations, U.S. Sentencing Commission

Ethics and Compliance Programs: A Resource Guide by the U.S. Department of Justice and the SEC



What is an example of affirmative action in an organization?

  1. Removing identifying information from resumes so recruiters are unaware of applicants' backgrounds
  2. Establishing a workforce outreach program for protected groups underrepresented in the organization
  3. Enacting a policy that race or gender may not be criteria for hiring decisions
  4. Including a statement in commercials that the organization has a diverse workforce

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Definition of Affirmative Action: Affirmative action involves proactive efforts to improve employment or educational opportunities for underrepresented groups.

Outreach Programs: Establishing outreach programs specifically targeted at protected groups is a clear example of affirmative action, as it aims to address and reduce disparities in workforce representation.

Legal and Ethical Mandates: Such programs are often required by law for certain employers, especially federal contractors, and demonstrate a commitment to diversity and inclusion.

Impact on Workforce Diversity: These initiatives can lead to a more diverse and inclusive workplace, which can enhance organizational culture and performance.


Reference:

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964

Executive Order 11246, which requires affirmative action programs for federal contractors



What is the difference between adverse impact and disparate treatment?

  1. Adverse impact provides nonneutral discriminatory effects on a protected group, whereas disparate treatment is unseen discrimination of an employment policy that ° produces negative consequences.
  2. Disparate treatment is when a discriminatory effect impacts a protected group but is unintentional, whereas adverse impact is blatantly discriminating against a protected class.
  3. Adverse impact provides a level of discrimination that is intentional and causes harm to protected groups, while disparate treatment relates to employer practices that : seem to be nondiscriminatory but cause negative effects for protected groups.
  4. Disparate treatment is intentional discrimination based on protected characteristics, while adverse impact is where employment practices appear neutral but have a discriminatory effect.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Disparate Treatment: This involves deliberate discrimination where an individual is treated differently based on a protected characteristic (e.g., race, gender, age).

Intentionality: The key aspect of disparate treatment is the intent to discriminate.

Adverse Impact: Also known as disparate impact, this occurs when a policy or practice that appears neutral results in a disproportionate negative effect on a protected group.

Unintentional Discrimination: Adverse impact does not require intent to discriminate, only that the outcome of a practice is discriminatory.

Legal Standards: Both concepts are critical in employment law and are evaluated under different standards of proof and remediation.


Reference:

Civil Rights Act of 1964, Title VII

Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (1978)



Which legislation was established for federal contractors to take proactive steps in affirmative action within their workforces?

  1. Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act
  2. Fair Labor Standards Act
  3. Civil Rights Act
  4. Executive Order 11246

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Executive Order 11246: Signed by President Lyndon B. Johnson in 1965, this order requires federal contractors to take affirmative action to ensure that equal opportunity is provided in all aspects of their employment.

Affirmative Action Plans: Contractors must develop and implement affirmative action plans to promote diversity and eliminate discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, or national origin.

Enforcement: The Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP) enforces these requirements and conducts compliance evaluations to ensure adherence.

Impact on Federal Contractors: This legislation has significantly impacted hiring practices and policies within organizations that do business with the federal government, promoting a more diverse and equitable workforce.


Reference:

Executive Order 11246, Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP)

U.S. Department of Labor, Affirmative Action Overview



A recruiter requests that an applicant complete a document that requests information about the applicant s medical conditions and the medical conditions of their family members.

Which law did this recruiter violate?

  1. Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993
  2. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
  3. Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008
  4. Civil Rights Act of 1991

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) of 2008 prohibits employers from requesting, requiring, or purchasing genetic information about an applicant or an employee, which includes family medical history. The act aims to prevent discrimination based on genetic information in both health insurance and employment. The recruiter's request for information about the applicant's medical conditions and those of their family members directly violates GINA.


Reference:

Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008, U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) website



What describes a bona fide occupational qualification under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

  1. An exemption from performing essential job functions for people with specific traits
  2. A quota for workforce diversity in government agencies and large organizations
  3. A characteristic that is essential to the successful performance of a relevant job function
  4. A provision that makes retaliation against whistleblowers illegal

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

A bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 allows employers to hire employees based on characteristics typically prohibited under the act, such as religion, sex, or national origin, if these characteristics are reasonably necessary to the normal operation of a particular business. This means the characteristic must be essential to the performance of the job. For example, hiring a female actor for a female role is considered a BFOQ.


Reference:

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) website



Which act establishes a national minimum wage, overtime rules, recordkeeping requirements, and youth employment standards?

  1. Rehabilitation Act of 1973
  2. National Labor Relations Act of 1935
  3. Equal Pay Act of 1963
  4. Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938 establishes several key labor standards, including a national minimum wage, overtime pay eligibility, recordkeeping, and child labor regulations. The FLSA is administered by the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor and ensures that workers receive fair compensation and that minors are protected in the workplace.


Reference:

Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, U.S. Department of Labor (DOL) website



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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United States
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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Anonymous
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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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UNITED STATES
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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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Anonymous
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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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UNITED STATES
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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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NEW ZEALAND
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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Anonymous
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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

Anonymous
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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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UNITED KINGDOM
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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Anonymous
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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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UNITED STATES
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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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