WGU Ethics In Technology QCO1 Ethics-In-Technology Dumps in PDF

Free WGU Ethics-In-Technology Real Questions (page: 4)

To gain access to the electronic health record of a critically injured patient, an intensive care specialist decided to circumvent privacy policies to save the patient Which decision-ma king process guided the action of the specialist?

  1. Unethical and legal
  2. Unethical and illegal
  3. Ethical and legal
  4. Ethical and Illegal

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The intensive care specialist acts with good intent (saving the patient's life) but violates privacy laws in the process.

Why is this ethical?

The doctor prioritizes the patient's life and well-being, which aligns with the ethical principle of beneficence (doing good).

The action follows utilitarian ethics, where breaking a rule is justified if it results in a greater moral good (saving a life).

Why is this illegal?

Bypassing privacy protections (e.g., HIPAA, GDPR) violates legal and regulatory standards concerning patient data.

Medical institutions require proper authorization to access patient records, even in emergencies.

Why Not the Other Options?

A . Unethical and Legal: The action is not unethical because the intention is to save a life.

B . Unethical and Illegal: The action is illegal but not unethical, as it prioritizes the patient's survival.

C . Ethical and Legal: While ethical, privacy laws are still broken, making it illegal.

Thus, the correct answer is D. Ethical and Illegal, as the doctor acts ethically but violates privacy laws in the process.

Reference in Ethics in Technology:

Beauchamp, T., & Childress, J. (2019). Principles of Biomedical Ethics. Oxford University Press.

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) (2018).

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) (1996).

Tavani, H. T. (2016). Ethics and Technology: Controversies, Questions, and Strategies for Ethical Computing.



An incident handler discovers an unauthorized change in the security key vault's database file, which caused a disclosure of confidential information.
Which ethical issue does this incident pose?

  1. Property
  2. Privacy
  3. Access
  4. Accuracy

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The unauthorized change in the security key vault's database led to the disclosure of confidential information, which directly impacts privacy. Privacy concerns the protection of personal and sensitive information from unauthorized access, use, or exposure.

When confidential data is leaked, it violates fundamental principles of data privacy and security, raising ethical issues about how sensitive information is managed and protected.

Relevant Ethical Reference in Technology:

Privacy Ethics (Warren & Brandeis, 1890) ­ Defined privacy as "the right to be let alone."

Data Protection Regulations ­ GDPR (Europe), CCPA (California), and HIPAA (for health data) enforce ethical handling of personal information.

Confidentiality Principle in Cybersecurity ­ Ensuring only authorized access to sensitive information aligns with professional ethical standards (e.g., ACM Code of Ethics, IEEE Ethics Code).

Ethical Hacking & Incident Handling ­ Ethical frameworks emphasize preventing breaches that compromise privacy.

Thus, this incident primarily raises concerns about privacy, making option B the correct answer.



What is the first step in ethical decision-making for an IT professional?

  1. Choose an alternative
  2. Develop a problem statement
  3. Implement a solution
  4. Identify alternatives

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The first step in ethical decision-making for IT professionals is to develop a problem statement, which involves clearly identifying and defining the ethical issue at hand. Before choosing solutions, an IT professional must fully understand the nature and scope of the problem.

Relevant Ethical Reference in Technology:

Ethical Decision-Making Models ­ Models like the Kidder Ethical Decision-Making Model and Rest's Four-Component Model emphasize problem identification as the first step.

ACM Code of Ethics ­ Encourages IT professionals to assess issues carefully before taking action.

Deontological Ethics (Kantian Ethics) ­ Ethical decisions require a clear understanding of duty and obligations, which begins with defining the problem.

Business & IT Governance (COBIT Framework) ­ Ethical IT management requires problem assessment before action.

Thus, the correct first step in ethical decision-making is B. Develop a problem statement



Which action can IT leaders take to encourage ethical behavior in their organizational culture?

  1. Include traditional criteria in employee appraisals
  2. Offer optional training for employees
  3. Establish a chief executive officer (CEO) position
  4. Conduct social audits and communicate goals

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

IT leaders can encourage ethical behavior by conducting social audits to evaluate the organization's ethical performance and then communicating clear goals for improvement.

A social audit is a structured evaluation of a company's ethical, social, and environmental impact, ensuring transparency and accountability. By sharing ethical goals, IT leaders create an organizational culture that values integrity and responsibility.

Relevant Ethical Reference in Technology:

Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) ­ Ethical leadership requires accountability in areas like employee welfare, environmental impact, and digital ethics.

Stakeholder Theory (Freeman, 1984) ­ Ethical leadership involves transparency and engagement with employees, customers, and society.

IEEE and ACM Ethical Guidelines ­ Highlight the importance of corporate ethics policies and performance reviews.

Ethical IT Governance (ITIL & ISO 26000) ­ Emphasize corporate responsibility, ethical leadership, and transparency in IT decision-making.

Thus, conducting social audits and communicating ethical goals is the most effective way to promote an ethical culture.



A software development company's executive management team recently met to review its progress on ethical and social responsibility goals. After the review, the team planned a new set of goals for the upcoming year. The team shared the results of this review and the new goats with the employees and the board of directors.

Which process did the team complete?

  1. Establish code of ethics
  2. Model high ethical standards
  3. Deliver ethics training
  4. Conduct social audit

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A social audit is the process of evaluating a company's ethical, social, and corporate responsibility performance. The executive team reviewed past ethical and social responsibility efforts, set new goals, and shared the results with employees and the board, which aligns directly with a social audit.

Relevant Ethical Reference in Technology:

Business Ethics and Corporate Accountability ­ Companies must evaluate their social and ethical impact to maintain ethical leadership.

Ethical IT Management (ISO 26000 & CSR Frameworks) ­ Businesses should regularly assess their ethical and social impact.

Transparency and Ethical Leadership ­ Sharing findings with employees and stakeholders promotes a culture of accountability.

IT and Digital Ethics ­ Ethical technology use involves regular review and reassessment of ethical commitments.

Since the company reviewed its ethical and social responsibility goals and communicated them, it completed a social audit (D is the correct answer).



A bank customer recently received a mailer from a third party affiliated with the customer's bank. The customer is concerned because the mailer includes information about the customer's remaining mortgage amount.

What is a rule or provision of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) that provides a process for the customer to control this type of information?

  1. Financial privacy
  2. Pretexting
  3. Consumer protection
  4. Safeguards

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) is a (U.S. )federal law that governs the privacy and security of consumer financial information. It contains three key rules:

Financial Privacy Rule ­ Regulates how financial institutions collect and disclose personal financial information.

Safeguards Rule ­ Requires financial institutions to implement security programs to protect consumer data.

Pretexting Protection Rule ­ Prohibits deceptive attempts to obtain personal financial information.

In this case, the Financial Privacy Rule is relevant because it provides consumers with a way to control how their financial data is shared. This rule:

Requires financial institutions to provide privacy notices detailing how they collect, use, and share customer information.

Gives customers the right to opt-out of sharing certain types of financial information with third parties.

Since the customer is concerned about their mortgage details being shared, they can use the Financial Privacy Rule to control such disclosures.

Why Not the Other Options?

B . Pretexting ­ Involves identity theft or fraudulent attempts to access financial data, which is not relevant here.

C . Consumer Protection ­ A broad concept that does not specifically address financial data privacy.

D . Safeguards ­ Focuses on securing customer data from breaches, not on controlling data sharing.

Thus, the correct answer is A. Financial privacy as it directly addresses the customer's concern.

Reference in Ethics in Technology:

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (1999), 15 U.S.C. §§ 6801-6809.

Federal Trade Commission (FTC) Guide to the GLBA Financial Privacy Rule.

Solove, D. J. (2020). The Privacy Law Fundamentals. IAPP.



Which piece of legislation outlines who may access a person's credit data?

  1. Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act
  2. General Data Protection Regulation
  3. European Union Data Protection Directive
  4. Fair Credit Reporting Act

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) is a (U.S. )law that regulates who can access a person's credit data and how credit reporting agencies handle consumer information.

Key Provisions of FCRA:

Limits access to credit reports to entities with a "permissible purpose" (e.g., lenders, employers, landlords).

Gives consumers the right to dispute inaccurate credit report information.

Mandates credit reporting agencies to ensure the accuracy and privacy of credit data.

Why Not the Other Options?

A . Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act (FACTA) ­ Amends FCRA but focuses more on preventing identity theft, not on access to credit data.

B . General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) ­ A European law protecting personal data, but does not specifically regulate credit reporting.

C . European Union Data Protection Directive ­ The predecessor of GDPR, also unrelated to U.S.
credit laws.

Thus, the correct answer is D. Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) as it governs access to credit data.

Reference in Ethics in Technology:

Fair Credit Reporting Act (1970), 15 U.S.C. § 1681.

Federal Trade Commission (FTC) Guide on FCRA.

Solove, D. J. (2019). Nothing to Hide: The False Tradeoff Between Privacy and Security.



What is a Gramm-Leach-BIiley Act (GLBA) financial privacy rule that presents a threat to data privacy?

  1. Opt-in
  2. Safeguard
  3. Opt-out
  4. Pretexting

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The Financial Privacy Rule of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) allows consumers to control how their personal financial information is shared through an opt-out mechanism.

Why is "Opt-Out" a Threat to Data Privacy?

The opt-out model assumes that consumers consent to having their data shared unless they take action to refuse.

Many consumers may not be aware of their right to opt-out, leading to widespread data sharing without explicit consent.

This is less privacy-protective than an opt-in model, where consumers must actively give permission before their data is shared.

Why Not the Other Options?

A . Opt-in ­ This would enhance privacy, not threaten it.

B . Safeguard ­ Refers to data security, not data-sharing policies.

D . Pretexting ­ Involves fraudulent access to financial data, which is a different issue.

Thus, the correct answer is C. Opt-out, as it weakens consumer privacy protections by allowing data sharing unless the consumer takes action.

Reference in Ethics in Technology:

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (1999), 15 U.S.C. §§ 6801-6809.

Federal Trade Commission (FTC) Guide to GLBA Opt-Out Provisions.

Nissenbaum, H. (2010). Privacy in Context: Technology, Policy, and the Integrity of Social Life.



Share your comments for WGU Ethics-In-Technology exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

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Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

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Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

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12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

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11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

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