WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1/D488) Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering Dumps in PDF

Free WGU Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering Real Questions (page: 5)

What is one purpose of an End User License Agreement?

  1. Allow customers to legally create and sell a new version of the software
  2. Allow customers to legally use the software
  3. Allow customers to legally modify and compile the source code
  4. Allow customers to legally distribute the application to other users

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

AnEnd User License Agreement (EULA)is a legal contract between the software manufacturer and the user.

The primary purpose of a EULA is togrant the user the right to use the software.

It outlines the terms and conditions under which the software can be used.

This can include restrictions on installation, distribution, and modification.

The EULA helps protect the intellectual property rights of the software creator.


Reference:

"Software Licensing Handbook" by Jeffrey I. Gordon.

"Intellectual Property and Open Source" by Van Lindberg.



What is a common characteristic of a proprietary software license?

  1. A business gains the right to modify the software's source code.
  2. A business gains the right to use the software.
  3. A business gains the right to own the software.
  4. A business gains the right to distribute the software freely.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Aproprietary software licensetypically grants a business or user theright to usethe software.

Unlike open-source licenses, proprietary licenses do not usually allow modification, redistribution, or reverse engineering.

The software remains the property of the company that created it, and the licensee is only granted specific, limited rights.

Examples:Many enterprise software applications come with proprietary licenses that specify the terms of use.


Reference:

"Open Source Licensing: Software Freedom and Intellectual Property Law" by Lawrence Rosen.

"Proprietary Software Licenses Explained" from Software Engineering Institute.



Which method is frequently used to protect software?

  1. Trademarks
  2. GNU General Public License
  3. Copyrights
  4. Fair use

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Copyrightsare a common legal method used to protect software.

A copyright gives the creator of the software exclusive rights to use and distribute the software.

It protects against unauthorized copying, modification, and distribution of the software.

Software creators can enforce their copyrights to prevent others from infringing on their intellectual property.

Example:Copyright law is often invoked in cases of software piracy.


Reference:

"Copyright Law for the Internet and Information Technology" by Geraldine Collins.

"Understanding Copyright Law" by Marshall A. Leaffer.



What is the role of the CPU in a computing environment?

Choose 2 answers

  1. Carrying out the instructions of a computer program
  2. Storing data as it is being processed
  3. Directing electrical current over the circuit board
  4. Connecting components to the system unit
  5. Containing an arithmetic logic unit (ALU) that performs arithmetic and logic operations

Answer(s): A,E

Explanation:

TheCentral Processing Unit (CPU)is the primary component of a computer that performs most of the processing inside a computer.

Carrying out the instructions of a computer program: The CPU executes program instructions, which are the basic tasks that tell the computer what to do.

Containing an arithmetic logic unit (ALU): The ALU performs all arithmetic and logic operations, such as addition, subtraction, and comparison.

The CPU also manages data flow between the computer's other components.

It fetches instructions from memory, decodes them, and then executes them, which involves performing calculations and making decisions.


Reference:

"Computer Organization and Design: The Hardware/Software Interface" by David A. Patterson and John L. Hennessy.

"Modern Processor Design: Fundamentals of Superscalar Processors" by John Paul Shen and Mikko H.
Lipasti.



An employee needs to execute a program from the command line.

Which peripheral device should be used?

  1. Keyboard
  2. Hard drive
  3. Speaker
  4. Printer

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The employee needs to execute a program from the command line, which requires inputting commands into the computer.

The primary device for inputting commands is the keyboard.

Other options like the hard drive, speaker, and printer are not used for inputting commands.

The hard drive is used for data storage.

The speaker outputs sound.

The printer outputs documents.

Therefore, the correct peripheral device for this task is the keyboard.


Reference:

"Computer Fundamentals" by Anita Goel, which discusses input devices and their uses.

"The Principles of Information Systems" by Ralph Stair and George Reynolds, which details peripheral devices and their functions.



Which motherboard component is used for short-term storage of data?

  1. Hard Drive
  2. BIOS
  3. Read Only Memory
  4. RAM

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Short-term storage of data on a motherboard is managed by Random Access Memory (RAM).

RAM is volatile memory, meaning it temporarily stores data that is actively being used or processed by the CPU.

The other options:

The hard drive is used for long-term storage.

BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is firmware for hardware initialization.

Read Only Memory (ROM) is used for permanent data storage that doesn't change.

Thus, RAM is the correct answer for short-term data storage.


Reference:

"Computer Organization and Architecture" by William Stallings, which covers the various types of memory.

"Operating System Concepts" by Abraham Silberschatz, Peter B. Galvin, and Greg Gagne, which explains memory management.



Which item is an input device?

  1. Printer
  2. Flash Drive
  3. CD
  4. Scanner

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

An input device is any hardware component that allows a user to enter data into a computer.

A scanner is an input device that converts physical documents into digital format.

The other options:

Printer is an output device.

Flash drive is a storage device.

CD can be both storage and media for input/output depending on the context but is not primarily used for direct data input.

Therefore, a scanner is the correct answer for an input device.


Reference:

"Introduction to Computer Science" by ITL Education Solutions Limited, which discusses input and output devices.

"Digital Fundamentals" by Thomas L. Floyd, which includes information on various peripherals.



In which type of network topology are the networked devices connected to a central device like a hub or switch?

  1. Star
  2. Bus
  3. Mesh
  4. Ring

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In a star network topology, each network device is connected to a central device like a hub or a switch.

This central device acts as a repeater for data flow.

The other options:

Bus topology uses a single central cable.

Mesh topology involves each device being connected to every other device.

Ring topology connects devices in a circular fashion.

Therefore, the star topology correctly describes a network where devices connect to a central hub or switch.


Reference:

"Data and Computer Communications" by William Stallings, which explains different network topologies.

"Network+ Guide to Networks" by Jill West, Tamara Dean, and Jean Andrews, which covers network configurations.



Share your comments for WGU Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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