Which of the following illnesses is an example of a type III hypersensitivity reaction?
Answer(s): A
A type III hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by immune complex deposition. In lupus, auto- antibodies are formed and these complexes are deposited in other tissues, especially in the kidneys, skin, and joints. Graves disease and myasthenia gravis are examples of type II but in some classification systems they are called type V reactions. The auto-antibodies created in Graves attack TSH receptors in the thyroid, whereas in Myasthenia the target is the acetylcholine receptor. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is usually considered an example of a combination of type II and IV reactions, as T cells are directed at thyroid antigens and antibodies are also produced. Allergic rhinitis is a classic example of a type I, IgE mediated reaction.
Which of the following is a side effect of valproic acid?
Answer(s): B
Pancreatitis is one of the most serious adverse effects that can be caused by valproic acid. Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of Phenytoin. Kidney stones and weight loss can be a side effect of zonisamide or topiramate.
A 55-year-old female is receiving chemotherapy for metastatic carcinoma. She threatens to stop her treatment because of severe nausea and vomiting. The oncologist plans to use prochlorperazine to reduce the nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapeutic agents. What is the mechanism of action of prochlorperazine?
B: A variety of drugs have been found to be of some value in the prevention and treatment of vomiting, especially cancer chemotherapy-induced vomiting. With the exception of thioridazine, most of the neuroleptic drugs have antiemetic effects that are mediated by blocking D2 dopaminergic receptors of the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla. Phenothiazines, such as prochlorperazine, were the first drugs shown to be effective antiemetic agents and act by blocking dopamine receptors. They are effective against low to moderately emetogenic chemotherapeutic agents (for example, fluorouracil and doxorubicin). Although increasing the dose improves antiemetic activity, side effects, including hypotension and restlessness, are dose limiting. Other adverse reactions include extrapyramidal symptom and sedation. A: Serotonin 5-HT3 antagonist is incorrect. The specific antagonists of the 5-HT3 receptor, ondansetron and granisetron, selectively block 5-HT3 receptors in the periphery and in the brain (chemoreceptor trigger zone). C: Cannabinoids related is incorrect. Cannabinoids are marijuana derivatives including dronabinol and nabilone and are effective against moderately emetogenic chemotherapy. However, they are seldom first-line antiemetics because of serious side effects. D: Blockage of prostaglandins is incorrect. Dexamethasone and methylprednisolone used alone are effective against mildly to moderately emetogenic chemotherapy. Their antiemetic mechanism is not known, but it may involve blockade of prostaglandins. E: H2 receptor antagonist is incorrect. Antagonists of histamine H2 receptor block the action of histamine at all H2 receptors; their chief clinical use is as inhibitors of gastric acid secretion.
A 27-year-old female with ovarian cancer is undergoing chemotherapy. She develops subsequent renal failure.Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for this?
Answer(s): C
Cisplatin. All chemotherapeutics have similar generalized side effects related to their effects on rapidly growing cells. These include hair loss, nausea, and fatigue. However, many chemotherapeutics have unique toxicities as well which are often tested. Cisplatin (C) is notable for its nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Cyclophosphamide (A) is known to cause hemorrhagic cystitis. This is a distinct process from nephrotoxicity. The most noteworthy side effect of bleomycin (B) is pulmonary toxicity that can lead to pulmonary fibrosis. Vinblastine (D) is known for bone marrow suppression. Vincristine (E) causes neuropathy.
Your patient is a 43-year-old male who is experiencing post-operative voiding difficulty after an elective inguinal hernia repair. His post void residual volume was 280 cc.Which of the following medications is the most appropriate choice of therapy for this patient?
The patient is experiencing a common complication of low abdominal surgery. Post-operative urinary retention occurs in almost 25% of patients after low abdominal surgical procedures. A normal post- void residual volume is less than 50 cc or urine. The effects of anesthesia and analgesia both contribute to bladder distension, decreased micturition reflex, reduction of contractility of the detrusor muscle of the bladder, and incomplete voiding. The detrusor muscle of the bladder is stimulated to contract by muscarinic cholinergic agonists. Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist and is frequently used in this setting to improve bladder emptying. Finasteride is a drug that is a 5 alpha reductase inhibitor indicated for use in patients with bladder outlet obstruction as a result of prostatic hypertrophy. The inhibition of 5 alpha reductase decreases local conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in the prostate gland, which results in gradual shrinkage over a period of six to twelve months. Phenylephrine is an alpha-adrenergic agonist that is selective for alpha-1 receptors. Activation of the alpha 1 receptors in the bladder results in contraction of the trigone muscle and sphincter. This promotes urinary retention. Oxybutynin is an antimuscarinic agent that is useful for treatment of urge incontinence, and would have a detrimental effect on this patient’s bladder disorder. Imipramine is a medication with anticholinergic properties that would also cause worsening of the patient’s condition. Take home message: Post-operative urinary retention with concomitant incomplete voiding is a complication that results from a decreased micturition reflex, increased vesical sphincter tone, or decreased contractility of the detrusor muscle of the bladder. It can be successfully treated with a muscarinic agonist, such as bethanechol, or with an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist.
Share your comments for Test Prep NAPLEX exam with other users:
q23, its an array, isnt it? starts with [ and end with ]. its an array of objects, not object.
cool very helpfull
i just passed. this exam dumps is the same one from prepaway and examcollection. it has all the real test questions.
is this a valid prince2 practitioner dumps?
all are relatable questions
might help me to prepare for the exam
just paid and downlaod the 2 exams using the 50% sale discount. so far i was able to download the pdf and the test engine. all looks good.
i think it should be a,c. option d goes against the principle of building anything custom unless there are no work arounds available
very legible
is this exam accurate or helpful?
please upload dump, i have exam in 2 days
this is useful
question 232 answer should be perimeter not netowrk layer. wrong answer selected
nice questions
hi team, could you please provide this dump ?
very helpful to clear the exam and understand the concept.
i think it is great that you are helping people when they need it. thanks.
cannot evaluate yet
a laptops wireless antenna is most likely located in the bezel of the lid
good examplae to learn basic
this is useful information
looks usefull
question 81 should be c.
question 18 : response isnt a ?
plaese add questions
is dumps still valid ?
thanks for this
please upload questions
please upload the question dump for professional machinelearning
question 4 answer is c. this site shows the correct answer as b. "adopt a consumption model" is clearly a cost optimization design principle. looks like im done using this site to study!!!
number 52 answer is d
just started preparing for my exam , and this site is so much help
question 35 is incorrect, the correct answer is c, it even states so: explanation: when a vm is infected with ransomware, you should not restore the vm to the infected vm. this is because the ransomware will still be present on the vm, and it will encrypt the files again. you should also not restore the vm to any vm within the companys subscription. this is because the ransomware could spread to other vms in the subscription. the best way to restore a vm that is infected with ransomware is to restore it to a new azure vm. this will ensure that the ransomware is not present on the new vm.
i would like to take psm1 exam.