Test Prep CFA® Level I Chartered Financial Analyst CFA® LEVEL 1 Exam Questions in PDF

Free Test Prep CFA® LEVEL 1 Dumps Questions (page: 40)

Which of the following is true about Standard III (B) - Duty to Employer?

  1. It prohibits a departing employee from making arrangements to enter independent practice prior to leaving current employment.
  2. It precludes a member from entering into an independent business that is in direct competition with the employer.
  3. It requires the employee to obtain written permission from the employer as well as the outside entity before entering independent practice.
  4. It requires departing employee to give all the details about the independent practice before leaving the current employment.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Standard III (B) - Duty to Employer - does not preclude a member from entering into independent practice while still employed. It does require the employee to obtain written permission from the employer as well as the outside entity before doing this. It does not prohibit a departing employee from making arrangements to enter independent practice prior to leaving current employment, as long as such preparations do not constitute a breach of loyalty toward the employer.



Standard III (D) - Disclosure of Additional Compensation Arrangements - requires members to provide complete disclosure to their employer about any additional compensation arrangements. In order to abide by this, you must:

  1. Inform the legal department in writing.
  2. Inform your immediate supervisor in writing or by email.
  3. Inform senior management orally or in writing.
  4. Inform your supervisor in writing, by email or orally.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Standard III (D) requires written notification to the employer. This includes any form of communication that can be documented.



Institutional Investments is a fund management firm that provides investment advice as well as investment management to large client accounts. I.I.'s senior portfolio manager, Richard Fineman's cousin, Alberto Onestone, runs a small brokerage firm. Fineman has directed all of his junior portfolio managers to execute their trades with Alberto. Alberto's fees are higher than those available from discount brokers but Alberto provides Fineman and his managers a wealth of investment tips that he hears on the street. This helps Fineman in producing a successful investment newsletter. This helps enhance I.I.'s reputation, attracting new clients and allowing lower fees on all the accounts. Since the client accounts benefit from this arrangement, Fineman's managers do not think the practice is unethical. The relationship between Fineman and Onestone is not explicitly disclosed to the clients. You are currently interviewing with them for the position of a portfolio analyst. As a CFA Level I candidate, they portray the above situation as a hypothetical case and ask you if there

are any violations of the AIMR code of Ethics that they have heard about. Your response should be which of the following?

  1. Fineman and his managers are violating Standard IV (B.1) - Fiduciary Duties since they are not executing the trades at the lowest price available.
    II. Fineman and his managers are violating Standard IV (B.1) - Fiduciary Duties since they are using client brokerage to pay for services that do not directly benefit them.
    III. Fineman and his managers are violating Standard IV (B.7) - Disclosure of Conflicts to Clients and Prospects.
    IV. Fineman and his managers are not violating the Code as far as you can tell from the details given.
  2. I, II and III
  3. IV only
  4. II only
  5. II and III only

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

By not revealing the relationship between Fineman and Onestone - which is clearly a source of conflict of interest - the managers of Institutional Investors are in violation of Standard IV (B.7) - Disclosure of Conflicts to Clients and Prospects. Further, while there is a symbiotic relationship between I.I. and Onestone to the extent that both the parties gain, the clients who pay higher brokerage lose. Even though the practice leads to lower fees, it is not clear that the clients get benefits worth the cost incurred on their accounts. Further, there is a clear sense of impropriety in the setup. Unless the excess brokerage directly benefits the client accounts, this case is a violation of Standard IV (B.1) - Fiduciary Duties.



"Prohibited transactions" are discussed in Standard IV (B.4), Priority of Transactions. Which of the following is NOT suggested as a prohibited transaction for investment personnel?

  1. equity-based IPOs
  2. private placements
  3. equity securities
  4. none of these answers
  5. municipal bonds

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

Under the compliance procedures for Standard IV (B.4), members and their firms should clearly define prohibited transactions so that employees completely understand their obligations to clients and their employer.
Participation by investment personnel in equity or equity-based IPOs should be restricted. Members' firms should, for example, impose strict limits on investment personnel acquiring securities in private placements.
Managers should not be prevented, however, from purchasing government issues, such as municipal bonds and/or other government securities.



A manager who pays a higher commission than would normally be paid to purchase the goods or services is said to be ________ services.

  1. exploiting
  2. undercharged for
  3. paying up for
  4. fee-bound for
  5. none of these answers

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

A manager who pays a higher commission than would normally be paid to purchase the goods or services is said to be paying up for services. This practice is a violation of fiduciary duties to the client. However, various countries' securities laws permit a manager to pay up for goods and services without violating the manager's fiduciary duty so long as the requirements of the law are followed.



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