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Splunk Cloud Certified Admin SPLK-1005 Dumps in PDF

Free Splunk SPLK-1005 Real Questions (page: 5)

SPLK-1005 PDF — 80 Questions

Which of the following is not a path used by Splunk to execute scripts?

  1. SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/bin
  2. SPLUNK HOME/etc/appa/<app name>/bin
  3. SPLUNKHOMS/ctc/scripts/local
  4. SPLUNK_HOME/bin/scripts

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Splunk executes scripts from specific directories that are structured within its installation paths.
These directories typically include:

SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/bin: This directory is used to store scripts that are part of the core Splunk system configuration.
SPLUNK_HOME/etc/apps/<app name>/bin: Each Splunk app can have its own bin directory where scripts specific to that app are stored.
SPLUNK_HOME/bin/scripts: This is a standard directory for storing scripts that may be globally accessible within Splunk's environment.
However, C. SPLUNKHOMS/ctc/scripts/local is not a recognized or standard path used by Splunk for executing scripts. This path does not adhere to the typical directory structure within the SPLUNK_HOME environment, making it the correct answer as it does not correspond to a valid script execution path in Splunk.
Splunk Documentation


Reference:

Using Custom Scripts in Splunk

Directory Structure of SPLUNK_HOME



Which of the following are features of a managed Splunk Cloud environment?

  1. Availability of premium apps, no IP address whitelisting or blacklisting, deployed in US East AWS region.
  2. 20GB daily maximum data ingestion, no SSO integration, no availability of premium apps.
  3. Availability of premium apps, SSO integration, IP address whitelisting and blacklisting.
  4. Availability of premium apps, SSO integration, maximum concurrent search limit of 20.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

In a managed Splunk Cloud environment, several features are available to ensure that the platform is secure, scalable, and meets enterprise requirements. The key features include:
Availability of premium apps: Splunk Cloud supports the installation and use of premium apps such as Splunk Enterprise Security, IT Service Intelligence, etc. SSO Integration: Single Sign-On (SSO) integration is supported, allowing organizations to leverage their existing identity providers for authentication.
IP address whitelisting and blacklisting: To enhance security, managed Splunk Cloud environments allow for IP address whitelisting and blacklisting to control access.
Given the options:
Option C correctly lists these features, making it the accurate choice. Option A incorrectly states "no IP address whitelisting or blacklisting," which is indeed available. Option B mentions "no SSO integration" and "no availability of premium apps," both of which are inaccurate.
Option D talks about a "maximum concurrent search limit of 20," which does not represent the standard limit settings and may vary based on the subscription level.
Splunk Documentation


Reference:

Splunk Cloud Features and Capabilities
Single Sign-On (SSO) in Splunk Cloud
Security and Access Control in Splunk Cloud



Which of the following statements is true about data transformations using SEDCMD?

  1. Can only be used to mask or truncate raw data.
  2. Configured in props.conf and transform.conf.
  3. Can be used to manipulate the sourcetype per event.
  4. Operates on a REGEX pattern match of the source, sourcetype, or host of an event.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

SEDCMD is a directive used within the props.conf file in Splunk to perform inline data transformations. Specifically, it uses sed-like syntax to modify data as it is being processed.
A . Can only be used to mask or truncate raw data: This is the correct answer because SEDCMD is typically used to mask sensitive data, such as obscuring personally identifiable information (PII) or truncating parts of data to ensure privacy and compliance with security policies. It is not used for more complex transformations such as changing the sourcetype per event.
B . Configured in props.conf and transform.conf: Incorrect, SEDCMD is only configured in props.conf.
C . Can be used to manipulate the sourcetype per event: Incorrect, SEDCMD does not manipulate the s ourcetype.
D . Operates on a REGEX pattern match of the source, sourcetype, or host of an event: Incorrect, while SEDCMD uses regex for matching patterns in the data, it does not operate on the source, sourcetype, or host specifically.
Splunk Documentation


Reference:

SEDCMD Usage
Mask Data with SEDCMD



Which of the following is correct in regard to configuring a Universal Forwarder as an Intermediate Forwarder?

  1. This can only be turned on using the Settings > Forwarding and Receiving menu in Splunk Web/UI.
  2. The configuration changes can be made using Splunk Web. CU, directly in configuration files, or via a deployment app.
  3. The configuration changes can be made using CU, directly in configuration files, or via a deployment app.
  4. It is only possible to make this change directly in configuration files or via a deployment app.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Configuring a Universal Forwarder (UF) as an Intermediate Forwarder involves making changes to its configuration to allow it to receive data from other forwarders before sending it to indexers. D . It is only possible to make this change directly in configuration files or via a deployment app: This is the correct answer. Configuring a Universal Forwarder as an Intermediate Forwarder is done by editing the configuration files directly (like outputs.conf), or by deploying a pre-configured app via a deployment server. The Splunk Web UI (Management Console) does not provide an interface for configuring a Universal Forwarder as an Intermediate Forwarder. A . This can only be turned on using the Settings > Forwarding and Receiving menu in Splunk Web/UI:
Incorrect, as this applies to Heavy Forwarders, not Universal Forwarders. B . The configuration changes can be made using Splunk Web, CLI, directly in configuration files, or via a deployment app: Incorrect, the Splunk Web UI is not used for configuring Universal Forwarders. C . The configuration changes can be made using CLI, directly in configuration files, or via a deployment app: While CLI could be used for certain configurations, the specific Intermediate Forwarder setup is typically done via configuration files or deployment apps.
Splunk Documentation


Reference:

Universal Forwarder Configuration
Intermediate Forwarder Configuration



What does the followTail attribute do in inputs.conf?

  1. Pauses a file monitor if the queue is full.
  2. Only creates a tail checkpoint of the monitored file.
  3. Ingests a file starting with new content and then reading older events.
  4. Prevents pre-existing content in a file from being ingested.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The followTail attribute in inputs.conf controls how Splunk processes existing content in a monitored file.
D . Prevents pre-existing content in a file from being ingested: This is the correct answer.
When followTail = true is set, Splunk will ignore any pre-existing content in a file and only start monitoring from the end of the file, capturing new data as it is added. This is useful when you want to start monitoring a log file but do not want to index the historical data that might be present in the file. A . Pauses a file monitor if the queue is full: Incorrect, this is not related to the followTail attribute. B . Only creates a tail checkpoint of the monitored file: Incorrect, while a tailing checkpoint is created for state tracking, followTail specifically refers to skipping the existing content. C . Ingests a file starting with new content and then reading older events: Incorrect, followTail does not read older events; it skips them.
Splunk Documentation


Reference:

followTail Attribute Documentation
Monitoring Files
These answers align with Splunk's best practices and available documentation on managing and configuring Splunk environments.



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Share your comments for Splunk SPLK-1005 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
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