SOCRA Certified Clinical Research Professional CCRP Dumps in PDF

Free SOCRA CCRP Real Questions (page: 2)

In determining the classification of risk for a study involving a medical device, it is necessary to consider the:

  1. Number of patients to be treated with the device
  2. Cost of device
  3. Investigators' prior training and experience
  4. Use of the device in the particular study

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

FDA regulations for investigational devices are found under 21 CFR 812. Risk classification determines whether a device is considered Significant Risk (SR) or Non-Significant Risk (NSR). The critical factor is how the device will be used in the specific study.

21 CFR 812.3(m): Defines a "significant risk device study" as one that "is intended as an implant, is purported or represented to be for a use in supporting or sustaining human life, or otherwise presents a potential for serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of a subject."

Risk is judged within the context of the protocol -- i.e., use of the device in that particular study (D).

Number of patients (A), device cost (B), or investigator experience (C) are irrelevant to FDA's risk classification. For example, a stent used in an approved indication may be NSR, but if used in a new anatomical location, it may be SR.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. This ensures ethical review bodies and FDA assess safety in the intended clinical context rather than device attributes alone.


Reference:

21 CFR 812.3(m) (Definition of significant risk device).

FDA Guidance on Significant Risk and Nonsignificant Risk Medical Device Studies.



A research assistant on a study was recently promoted to a clinical research coordinator (CRC) role after one year on the study. In order to fulfill the significant new responsibilities, the CRC completed additional institutional training. According to ICH GCP Guidelines and 21 CFR, which of the following must be filed in the regulatory binder?

  1. The letter documenting the promotion to a CRC
  2. A brochure from the training course
  3. An updated performance review summary
  4. An updated curriculum vitae

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The regulatory binder (investigator site file) must contain documents verifying qualifications of all personnel. These include curricula vitae (CVs), professional licenses, and training certificates.

ICH E6(R2) 4.1.5: "The investigator should ensure that all persons assisting with the trial are qualified by education, training, and experience... Current curriculum vitae and/or other relevant documents evidencing qualifications should be maintained."

21 CFR 312.53(c)(1): Sponsors must select investigators qualified "by training and experience," and investigators must provide sufficient documentation, typically updated CVs.

Letters of promotion (A), training brochures (B), or performance reviews (C) may remain in personnel files but are not required regulatory documents. The only acceptable regulatory proof is an updated CV (D), which reflects the individual's training and qualifications for their new role.

Therefore, the correct answer is D (Updated CV). This ensures compliance with ICH and FDA requirements for staff qualification documentation in clinical research.


Reference:

ICH E6(R2) Good Clinical Practice, §4.1.5 (Investigator responsibilities for staff qualification).

21 CFR 312.53(c)(1) (Investigator qualifications and documentation).



In accordance with the ICH GCP Guideline and the CFR, who is directly responsible for ensuring that an IRB/IEC will conduct the initial and continuing review of a study?

  1. The sponsor
  2. The monitor
  3. The investigator
  4. The study coordinator

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The investigator is directly responsible for ensuring that the IRB/IEC reviews and approves the research both initially and on a continuing basis. This responsibility is not delegable to the sponsor or study staff.

ICH E6(R2) 4.4.1: "Before initiating a trial, the investigator/institution should have written and dated approval/favorable opinion from the IRB/IEC for the trial protocol, written informed consent form, consent form updates, and any other written information to be provided to subjects."

21 CFR 312.66: "An investigator shall assure that an IRB that complies with the requirements... will be responsible for the initial and continuing review and approval of the proposed clinical study."

This means that while the sponsor submits documents to the FDA and oversees general compliance, the investigator has the obligation to obtain and maintain IRB approval at their site. The monitor or study coordinator may assist in documentation, but legal responsibility rests with the investigator.

Thus, the correct answer is C (The investigator).


Reference:

ICH E6(R2), §4.4.1 (Investigator responsibility before initiation).

21 CFR 312.66 (IRB responsibility in clinical investigations).



In accordance with the CFR, clinical trial sponsors are required to retain records and reports after a marketing application is approved for at least:

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 5 years
  4. 15 years

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The FDA record retention requirement for investigational drug studies is clearly outlined in 21 CFR 312.57(c) and 21 CFR 312.62(c).

21 CFR 312.57(c): "A sponsor shall retain the records and reports... for 2 years after a marketing application is approved for the drug; or, if an application is not approved, until 2 years after shipment and delivery of the drug for investigational use is discontinued and FDA has been so notified."

21 CFR 312.62(c): Investigators also must retain study-related records for 2 years following the date a marketing application is approved or 2 years after the investigation is discontinued.

This requirement ensures FDA can audit investigational product data even after approval to confirm compliance and verify trial results. Longer retention (e.g., 15 years) may be institutional or sponsor policy but is not mandated by federal law.

Thus, the correct answer is A (2 years).


Reference:

21 CFR 312.57(c) (Sponsor record retention).

21 CFR 312.62(c) (Investigator record retention).



Which of the following entities, if any, must provide an approval before an investigator may enroll subjects in a quality-of-life research questionnaire study?

  1. The Department of Health and Human Services
  2. The FDA or another regulatory authority
  3. The IRB/IEC
  4. No approvals are necessary if no pharmaceutical drugs are involved

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Even if a study does not involve drugs, devices, or biologics, it still involves human subjects and therefore requires ethical review by an IRB/IEC.

45 CFR 46.109(a): "An IRB shall review and have authority to approve, require modifications in (to secure approval), or disapprove all research activities covered by this policy."

ICH E6(R2) 3.1.2: "The IRB/IEC should safeguard the rights, safety, and well-being of all trial subjects."

Quality-of-life (QOL) studies may involve surveys, interviews, or questionnaires, but since they involve human participants, they are subject to human research protection regulations. FDA involvement is not required unless drugs or devices are tested. Similarly, HHS approval is not required unless the study is federally funded.

Thus, the correct answer is C (The IRB/IEC).


Reference:

45 CFR 46.109(a) (IRB review of research).

ICH E6(R2), §3.1.2 (IRB/IEC role in subject protection).



A clinical investigator terminated a Phase IV drug study. In accordance with the ICH GCP Guidelines,

which of the following documents should the clinical investigator maintain?

  1. The master randomization list
  2. The completed subject identification code list
  3. The final trial closeout monitoring report
  4. The audit certificate

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Upon study closure, investigators must maintain documentation that allows subject data to be linked back if necessary. The Subject Identification Code List is a key essential document for ensuring traceability while maintaining confidentiality.

ICH E6(R2) 8.3.21: "Subject Identification Code List -- A list of all subjects randomized to trial numbers, allowing investigator to identify each subject in case follow-up is required. This list should be kept in a confidential manner and retained for the maximum retention period."

ICH E6(R2) 8.4: Essential documents for investigators include items needed for subject identification, protocol compliance, and trial closure.

Other listed documents (randomization list, monitoring report, audit certificate) are maintained by the sponsor, not the investigator. The subject code list ensures that in the event of a safety issue, regulatory authority queries, or subject withdrawal, the investigator can trace back records.

Thus, the correct answer is B (Completed Subject Identification Code List).


Reference:

ICH E6(R2), §8.3.21 (Essential documents: Subject identification code list).

ICH E6(R2), §8.4 (Essential documents for trial closure).



A study subject in a double-blinded, placebo-controlled Phase III study experienced a serious adverse event that could be related to the study drug. The clinical investigator is out of town, and the sub- investigator needs to break the blind.
Where can the sub-investigator find a description of the unblinding procedure?

  1. The informed consent form
  2. The Investigator's Brochure
  3. The study protocol
  4. The case report form

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Unblinding procedures are a protocol-level responsibility because they involve trial design, safety management, and subject protection.

ICH E6(R2) 6.0 (Protocol and amendments): Requires the protocol to specify "the treatment(s) and treatment periods, procedures for randomization and blinding, and procedures for breaking codes."

ICH E6(R2) 4.7: "The investigator should follow the trial's randomization procedure, if any, and should ensure that the code is broken only in accordance with the protocol."

The informed consent (A) explains risks and rights but does not include operational unblinding procedures. The Investigator's Brochure (B) summarizes preclinical/clinical data but does not dictate site-specific trial management. The CRF (D) is for data capture and has no procedural detail.

Therefore, the correct answer is C (The study protocol), as it outlines unblinding steps and documentation requirements.


Reference:

ICH E6(R2), §6.0 (Protocol content).

ICH E6(R2), §4.7 (Randomization and unblinding).



An investigator is working with a new sponsor to submit a cardiovascular trial to the IRB/IEC. In accordance with the ICH GCP Guidelines, which parties should sign the protocol to confirm agreement that the trial will be conducted as agreed?

  1. The investigator/institution and the sponsor
  2. The investigator/institution and the delegated site staff
  3. The sponsor and the IRB/IEC
  4. The sponsor and the FDA

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The protocol signature page documents agreement between the sponsor and the investigator/institution to conduct the trial in compliance with ICH GCP, the protocol, and regulatory standards.

ICH E6(R2) 8.2.2 (Signed protocol and amendments): Requires "the sponsor and investigator/institution to sign the protocol and amendments, confirming agreement."

ICH E6(R2) 4.5.1: "The investigator should conduct the trial in compliance with the protocol agreed to by the sponsor and, if required, approved by the regulatory authority(ies) and by the IRB/IEC."

The sponsor­investigator signatures ensure shared accountability for subject protection, data integrity, and adherence to trial methodology. Neither delegated staff (B) nor IRB/IEC (C) nor FDA (D) sign protocols. These bodies approve or oversee, but do not formally enter into execution of the protocol.

Thus, the correct answer is A (The investigator/institution and the sponsor).


Reference:

ICH E6(R2), §8.2.2 (Signed protocol and amendments).

ICH E6(R2), §4.5.1 (Investigator compliance with protocol).



Share your comments for SOCRA CCRP exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!