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Scrum Scaled Professional SPS Dumps in PDF

Free Scrum SPS Real Questions (page: 5)

SPS PDF — 40 Questions

A Nexus Daily Scrum:
(choose the best two answers)

  1. Provides a single meeting where all Scrum Teams can update the Sprint Backlog.
  2. Is the same as a Scrum-of-Scrums.
  3. Provides input into each Scrum Team's individual Daily Scrums to help them better plan their days work.
  4. Is only for the Nexus Integration Team to plan their work for the next 24-hours.
  5. Is an opportunity to make integration issues transparent.

Answer(s): C,E

Explanation:

The best answers for this question are:
C) Provides input into each Scrum Team's individual Daily Scrums to help them better plan their days work. This answer is correct because the Nexus Daily Scrum is an event that helps the Scrum Teams in a Nexus to coordinate their work and identify any integration issues or dependencies that may affect their progress toward the Nexus Sprint Goal. The appropriate representatives from each Scrum Team attend the Nexus Daily Scrum and share relevant information and feedback that can help their teams plan their work for the next 24 hours 112233.
E) Is an opportunity to make integration issues transparent. This answer is also correct because the Nexus Daily Scrum is an event that enables the Scrum Teams in a Nexus to inspect the current state of the Integrated Increment and to make any integration issues or newly discovered cross-team dependencies transparent. The Nexus Daily Scrum also provides a forum for the Scrum Teams to collaborate and resolve any integration challenges or impediments that may arise during the Sprint 112244.
The other answers are not correct for the following reasons:
A) Provides a single meeting where all Scrum Teams can update the Sprint Backlog. This answer is not accurate because the Nexus Daily Scrum is not a meeting where all Scrum Teams update the Sprint Backlog, but rather an event where appropriate representatives from each Scrum Team inspect the Integrated Increment and identify integration issues or dependencies. The Sprint Backlog is updated by each Scrum Team during their own Daily Scrum, which is a separate event from the Nexus Daily Scrum 1155.
B) Is the same as a Scrum-of-Scrums. This answer is not true because the Nexus Daily Scrum is not the same as a Scrum-of-Scrums, which is a common practice for coordinating multiple Scrum Teams that is not part of the Scrum framework. The Nexus Daily Scrum is a specific event defined by the Nexus framework, which is a minimal extension of Scrum that enables multiple Scrum Teams to work together on a single product. The Nexus Daily Scrum has a clear purpose, structure, and outcome that differs from a Scrum-of-Scrums 112233.
D) Is only for the Nexus Integration Team to plan their work for the next 24-hours. This answer is not correct because the Nexus Daily Scrum is not only for the Nexus Integration Team, but also for the appropriate representatives from each Scrum Team in the Nexus. The Nexus Integration Team is a special Scrum Team that facilitates the integration and delivery of the work done by the other Scrum Teams, but it does not plan the work for them. The Nexus Daily Scrum is an event that helps all the Scrum Teams in the Nexus to coordinate their work and identify any integration issues or dependencies 1155.



Four teams in a Nexus typically integrate their work only once, late in the Sprint. The teams report that it takes many hours or days to integrate their work, which delays the Sprint's end. To address this issue, which of the following would help? (choose the best answer)

  1. Integrating more frequently.
  2. Doing more acceptance testing.
  3. Doing more exploratory testing.
  4. Using Behavior-Driven Development.
  5. Investing in more Requirements Traceability.
  6. All of the above.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The best answer for this question is A. Integrating more frequently. This answer is correct because integrating more frequently can help the Scrum Teams in a Nexus to detect and resolve integration issues or dependencies earlier and faster, and to deliver a potentially releasable product increment at the end of each Sprint. Integrating more frequently can also reduce the complexity and risk of integration, and increase the quality and feedback of value delivery 112233. The other answers are not correct for the following reasons:
B) Doing more acceptance testing. This answer is not sufficient because doing more acceptance testing does not address the root cause of the problem, which is the late integration of the work. Acceptance testing can help to verify the quality and functionality of the product increment, but it does not ensure that the integration is done early and often. Moreover, doing more acceptance testing may consume more time and resources, and delay the delivery of the product increment 44. C) Doing more exploratory testing. This answer is not helpful because doing more exploratory testing does not solve the issue of the late integration of the work. Exploratory testing can help to discover and learn more about the product increment, but it does not guarantee that the integration is done smoothly and quickly. Furthermore, doing more exploratory testing may introduce more uncertainty and variability, and hinder the delivery of the product increment 55. D) Using Behavior-Driven Development. This answer is not relevant because using Behavior-Driven Development does not directly affect the integration of the work. Behavior-Driven Development is a technique that can help to define and communicate the expected behavior and outcomes of the product increment, but it does not ensure that the integration is done frequently and effectively. Additionally, using Behavior-Driven Development may require more collaboration and coordination, and complicate the delivery of the product increment [6]. E) Investing in more Requirements Traceability. This answer is not useful because investing in more Requirements Traceability does not improve the integration of the work. Requirements Traceability is a practice that can help to track and document the origin and evolution of the product requirements, but it does not ensure that the integration is done timely and efficiently. Also, investing in more Requirements Traceability may increase the overhead and bureaucracy, and slow down the delivery of the product increment [7].
F) All of the above. This answer is not correct because none of the above answers are effective for addressing the issue of the late integration of the work. As explained above, each of the above answers has its own limitations and drawbacks, and does not directly or sufficiently help the Scrum Teams in a Nexus to integrate their work more frequently and successfully. Therefore, the best answer is A. Integrating more frequently.



During Cross-Team Refinement, the ordered Product Backlog (1 through 9) is mapped out so the Nexus can visualize dependencies. For example, PBI 5 for Team Orange is dependent on Team Red completing PBI 1.



All else being equal, which PBI is most concerning?

(choose the best answer)

  1. PBI 2, because it has the most dependencies.
  2. PBI 1, because it is on the top of the Product Backlog.
  3. PBI 1, because it is the first piece of work with a dependency.
  4. PBI 2, because there is a dependency with a different team on work that occurs within the same Sprint.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

PBI 2 is the most concerning because it involves a cross-team dependency within the same Sprint, which can create challenges and risks for the integration and delivery of the product increment. According to the Online Nexus Guide1, dependencies should be minimized or eliminated as much as possible, and if they exist, they should be made transparent and resolved as early as possible. Cross- team dependencies within the same Sprint can cause delays, conflicts, rework, and waste, and reduce the quality and value of the product increment 234. The other answers are not correct for the following reasons:

A) PBI 2, because it has the most dependencies. This answer is not accurate because PBI 2 does not have the most dependencies, but only one dependency with PBI 1 from Team Red. PBI 3 has the most dependencies, as it depends on PBI 1, PBI 2, and PBI 4. However, PBI 3 is not as concerning as PBI 2, because its dependencies are not within the same Sprint, but across different Sprints. This means that PBI 3 can be refined and planned in advance, and the teams can coordinate and communicate their work more effectively 5.
B) PBI 1, because it is on the top of the Product Backlog. This answer is not relevant because the position of PBI 1 on the Product Backlog does not indicate its level of concern, but its priority and value. The Product Backlog is ordered by the Product Owner based on various factors, such as business value, risk, complexity, and dependencies. PBI 1 may be on the top of the Product Backlog because it is the most valuable or urgent item, or because it is a prerequisite for other items, but it is not necessarily the most concerning item 6.
C) PBI 1, because it is the first piece of work with a dependency. This answer is not true because PBI 1 is not the first piece of work with a dependency, but the first piece of work that other items depend on. PBI 1 does not have any dependencies itself, but it creates dependencies for PBI 2, PBI 3, and PBI
5. Therefore, PBI 1 is not as concerning as PBI 2, because it does not depend on any other item, and it can be completed independently by Team Red 5.



Scenario A: Nexus Sprint Review with Five Scrum Teams

There are five Scrum Teams working on a product. During the Nexus Sprint Review, the teams present the results of the Sprint. After introductions, each team takes time to present their work for inspection by individually showing the new features they have built. They are not using a shared environment. The stakeholders do not provide much feedback. The event ends and people filter out of the room.
Since teams are not using a shared environment, what is likely? (choose the best two answers)

  1. The Sprint is too short.
  2. The Nexus has not yet reached the integration phase.
  3. There is no single Integrated Increment.
  4. The Nexus Integration Team is lacking or nonexistent.

Answer(s): C,D

Explanation:

According to the Nexus Guide1, the Nexus Sprint Review is an event where the Nexus presents the Done Integrated Increment that was built over the Sprint and collects feedback from the stakeholders. The Integrated Increment is the combined work of all the Scrum Teams in the Nexus that meets the Definition of Done. The Nexus Guide also states that the Nexus Integration Team is a specialized Scrum Team that provides services and guidance to the Scrum Teams in the Nexus to ensure that the Integrated Increment is produced every Sprint. In the scenario, the teams are not using a shared environment, which implies that they are not integrating their work frequently and effectively. This means that there is no single Integrated Increment that can be inspected and adapted by the stakeholders. This also suggests that the Nexus Integration Team is lacking or nonexistent, or that it is not fulfilling its role of facilitating integration and resolving dependencies. Without a Nexus Integration Team and a shared environment, the Nexus cannot deliver a valuable product Increment that meets the Product Goal. The Sprint length and the integration phase are not relevant to the scenario. The Sprint length is determined by the Nexus based on the complexity and uncertainty of the product, and it should be less than a month. The integration phase is not a separate phase in Nexus, but a continuous activity that happens throughout the Sprint. Therefore, A and B are not correct answers.



The Scrum Teams in a Nexus find they have simply too much work each Sprint to do to deliver a valuable and useful Increment.
What could they try to improve their ability to produce an Increment for the next Sprint?

(choose the best answer)

  1. Reduce the amount of work that the teams pull into the Sprint.
  2. Ask the Nexus Integration Team to extend the Sprint to allow more time for integration.
  3. Reduce the number of Scrum Teams to reduce complexity.
  4. Add another Scrum Team to the Nexus to increase capacity.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The best way to improve the ability of the Scrum Teams in a Nexus to produce an Increment for the next Sprint is to reduce the amount of work that the teams pull into the Sprint. This will allow the teams to focus on delivering a high-quality and valuable product Increment that meets the Definition of Done and the Product Goal. Reducing the amount of work also reduces the complexity and dependencies among the teams, which makes integration easier and faster. The other options are not advisable for the following reasons:
Asking the Nexus Integration Team to extend the Sprint to allow more time for integration is not consistent with the Scrum principles and values. The Sprint length should be fixed and consistent throughout the product development, and it should be less than a month. Extending the Sprint would compromise the feedback loop, the transparency, and the adaptability of the Nexus 11.

Reducing the number of Scrum Teams to reduce complexity is not a viable solution, as it would also reduce the capacity and the productivity of the Nexus. The number of Scrum Teams in a Nexus should be based on the size and the scope of the product, and it should not exceed nine teams 11. Reducing the number of teams would also disrupt the existing team dynamics and collaboration. Adding another Scrum Team to the Nexus to increase capacity is not a good idea, as it would increase the complexity and the dependencies among the teams. Adding another team would also require more coordination and communication, which would consume more time and resources. Moreover, adding another team would not necessarily increase the value or the quality of the product Increment 22.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:49:11 AM

Question 3:
Question 3 asks for two valid ways to meet the purchase order creation validation (warn if the vendor is on the exclusion list for the customer/product and block/alert accordingly).
Correct answers: C and D

  • C: In Application Explorer, create a form extension and implement validation.
- Extend the Purchase Order creation form and add validation logic (e.g., before save/submit) to check VendExclusions for the customer/item and show a warning or block the PO as needed.
  • D: Implement Chain of Command (CoC) and method wrapping by creating a form extension class.
- Use CoC to wrap the target PO creation method, perform the exclusion check after calling super(), and enforce the rule (warning or prevent creation).
Why not A or B?
  • A (class with a form data source event handler) is not the standard pattern for this UI-level validation scenario and is less direct for enforcing creation-time behavior.
  • B (table extension with validation) cannot sufficiently enforce the UI-level workflow or trigger user-facing warnings during PO creation.

So, the two valid techniques are C and D, reflecting the recommended form-extension patterns: direct form validation and CoC-based method wrapping.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

Oslo, Norway
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
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