CCDM Exam Questions and Answers | Exam-Dumps (Page: 2)

QUESTION: 9

Which document describes what study subjects expect with respect to data disclosure during and after a study?

Study data sharing plan
ICH essential documents
Informed consent form
Study protocol

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The Informed Consent Form (ICF) is the document that explicitly describes what study subjects can expect regarding data disclosure, privacy, and confidentiality during and after participation in a clinical trial. According to ICH E6 (R2) Good Clinical Practice and FDA Human Subject Protection Regulations (21 CFR Parts 50 and 56), participants must be fully informed about how their personal and clinical data will be collected, used, stored, and shared -- both during the study and in any subsequent data-sharing or publication activities.
The GCDMP reiterates that clinical data managers must ensure that all data handling practices align with the privacy commitments made in the ICF. This includes compliance with data protection regulations such as HIPAA (in the U.S.) and GDPR (in the EU). The ICF defines the permissible scope of data use, ensuring ethical management and subject protection.

Documents like the protocol or data sharing plan may outline procedures and responsibilities but do not directly inform participants of their rights and data use expectations. Only the ICF is designed for that ethical communication purpose.

Reference:

(CCDM-Verified Sources)
SCDM Good Clinical Data Management Practices (GCDMP), Chapter: Ethics, Privacy, and Data Security
ICH E6 (R2) Good Clinical Practice, Sections 4.8.10 & 4.8.12 FDA 21 CFR Part 50 Protection of Human Subjects, Informed Consent Requirements

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QUESTION: 10

Every database lock should follow documented approval of which stakeholders?

Clinical/Scientific Representative, Data Manager, Biostatistician
Clinical/Scientific Representative, Biostatistician, Programmer
Clinical/Scientific Representative, Data Manager
Clinical/Scientific Representative, Biostatistician

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

According to the Good Clinical Data Management Practices (GCDMP), the database lock (DBL) process signifies the formal closure of the clinical trial database, ensuring that no further changes can be made to the data before statistical analysis. This process must be documented, controlled, and approved by key study stakeholders to ensure data accuracy, completeness, and readiness for analysis.
The GCDMP specifies that database lock should occur only after all data cleaning, discrepancy resolution, and reconciliation activities are complete. The lock authorization typically requires the approval of the Clinical/Scientific Representative (to confirm clinical completeness), the Data Manager (to confirm data integrity and query closure), and the Biostatistician (to confirm readiness for statistical analysis).
This tri-party approval ensures that the database reflects final, verified data consistent with the clinical protocol, and that the statistical analysis dataset derived from the database is accurate and auditable. The approval process is documented via a Database Lock Authorization Form or Sign-off Log, which becomes part of the permanent trial master file (TMF).

Reference:

(CCDM-Verified Sources)
SCDM Good Clinical Data Management Practices (GCDMP), Chapter: Database Lock and Archiving, Section 7.1 Lock Procedures and Approvals
ICH E6 (R2) GCP, Section 5.5.3 Data Handling and Record Keeping FDA Guidance for Industry: Computerized Systems Used in Clinical Investigations Section on Database Closure

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QUESTION: 11

An organization is using an international data exchange standard and a new version is released.
Which of the following should be assessed first?

Availability of other standards covering the same content
Existence of backwards compatibility
Content coverage of the new version
Cost of migrating to the new version

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

When an updated version of a data exchange standard (such as CDISC SDTM, ADaM, or ODM) is released, the first factor that should be assessed is backwards compatibility. This determines whether the new version can interoperate with or accept data from prior versions without significant reconfiguration or data loss.
According to the Good Clinical Data Management Practices (GCDMP) and CDISC Implementation Guides, assessing backwards compatibility ensures that historical or ongoing study data remain valid and usable within the updated environment. If the new version introduces structural or semantic changes (such as variable name modifications or controlled terminology updates), it could impact mapping, validation, or regulatory submissions.
Once backward compatibility is confirmed, secondary assessments such as content coverage, availability of overlapping standards, and migration cost can be considered. However, ensuring that the new version supports existing infrastructure and data continuity is the first critical step before adoption.

Reference:

(CCDM-Verified Sources)
SCDM GCDMP, Chapter: Standards and Data Integration, Section 4.2 Data Standards Updates and Compatibility Considerations
CDISC SDTM Implementation Guide, Section 1.5 Backward Compatibility and Version Control ICH E6(R2) GCP, Section 5.5 Data Handling and Standardization

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QUESTION: 12

Which is the most important reason for why a data manager would review data before a monitor reviews it?

Data managers write the Data Management Plan that specifies the data cleaning workflow.
Data can be viewed and discrepancies highlighted prior to a monitor's review.
Data managers have access to programming tools to identify discrepancies.
The GCDMP recommends that data managers review data prior to a monitor's review.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The primary reason data managers review data before a monitor's review is to identify and flag discrepancies or inconsistencies so that site monitors can focus their efforts more efficiently during on-site or remote source data verification (SDV).
According to the Good Clinical Data Management Practices (GCDMP, Chapter on Data Validation and Cleaning), proactive data review by data management staff ensures data completeness and accuracy by identifying missing, inconsistent, or out-of-range values. This pre-review helps streamline the monitoring process, reduces the volume of open queries, and enhances data quality. Option A is true but not the main reason for pre-monitor review. Option C highlights a capability rather than a rationale. Option D is partially correct, but the GCDMP emphasizes process purpose, not prescriptive order. Thus, option B correctly captures the practical and process-oriented reason for early data review--to ensure data are ready and accurate for the monitor's review phase.

Reference:

(CCDM-Verified Sources)
SCDM GCDMP, Chapter: Data Validation and Cleaning, Section 5.3 Data Review Timing and Purpose ICH E6(R2) GCP, Section 5.18 Monitoring and Data Verification Requirements

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QUESTION: 13

Which is the best way to see site variability in eligibility screening?

List eligibility waivers by site
Summarize screening rate by site
Graph enrollment by site
Plot eligibility rate by site

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

To identify site variability in eligibility screening, the most effective approach is to plot eligibility rate by site. This allows visual detection of differences in how well each site screens subjects according to protocol-defined inclusion and exclusion criteria.
The GCDMP (Chapter: Data Quality Assurance and Metrics) emphasizes the importance of graphical analysis for identifying anomalies and site-level performance variability. By plotting the eligibility rate by site, data managers and clinical operations teams can quickly identify outliers--sites that screen too many or too few eligible subjects--indicating potential training issues, misunderstanding of inclusion/exclusion criteria, or even possible protocol deviations.
While summarizing screening rate (B) provides useful numeric data, it lacks visual comparability. Listing waivers (A) or enrollment counts (C) provide limited insights into eligibility consistency. Therefore, option D--Plot eligibility rate by site--is the best analytic and visualization practice to assess site variability in screening outcomes.

Reference:

(CCDM-Verified Sources)
SCDM GCDMP, Chapter: Data Quality Assurance and Control, Section 6.1 Use of Metrics and Graphical Review for Site Performance
ICH E6(R2) GCP, Section 5.18.4 Identification of Systematic or Site-Specific Issues

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QUESTION: 14

The primary reason for system validation is to:

Allow a system to be used by its intended users.
Fulfill the validation plan.
Meet regulatory requirements.
Prove the system being tested works as intended.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The primary purpose of system validation in clinical data management is to demonstrate and document that the computerized system performs as intended--accurately, reliably, and consistently--throughout its lifecycle.
According to the Good Clinical Data Management Practices (GCDMP, Chapter on System Validation) and FDA 21 CFR Part 11, validation ensures that all system functions (e.g., data entry, edit checks, audit trails, security) work as designed, providing data integrity, traceability, and regulatory compliance. The focus is on fitness for intended use, meaning the system reliably produces correct and reproducible results in the context of its operational environment.
While meeting regulatory requirements (option C) and fulfilling a validation plan (option B) are components of the process, they are not the ultimate purpose. The essential goal is ensuring that the system performs as intended, maintaining accuracy and data integrity for clinical trial operations.

Reference:

(CCDM-Verified Sources)
SCDM GCDMP, Chapter: Computerized Systems and System Validation, Section 5.2 Purpose and Scope of System Validation
FDA 21 CFR Part 11 Validation of Computerized Systems for Intended Use ICH E6(R2) GCP, Section 5.5.3 Computerized System Validation and Data Integrity

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QUESTION: 15

With the implementation of EDC, which company Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) would require updates for new procedures of handling data?

Handling External Data
Coding Medical and Clinical Terms
Data Backup, Recovery, and Contingency Plans
Data Review and Validation

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

When a company transitions from paper-based data capture to Electronic Data Capture (EDC) systems, one of the most critical areas requiring procedural updates is the Data Review and Validation SOP. The introduction of EDC systems fundamentally changes how data is collected, reviewed, validated, and queried.
According to the Good Clinical Data Management Practices (GCDMP), the implementation of EDC introduces real-time data entry and review, automated edit checks, and electronic query management. These functionalities necessitate revised procedures to define how data validation, discrepancy management, and monitoring are conducted electronically. The SOP must specify roles, responsibilities, system access controls, and processes for electronic source verification (eSource), ensuring compliance with 21 CFR Part 11 and ICH E6 (R2) requirements. Other SOPs such as Handling External Data or Data Backup may require minor updates, but the Data Review and Validation SOP undergoes the most extensive change because EDC technology shifts validation responsibilities from post-data entry review to real-time oversight within the system.

Reference:

(CCDM-Verified Sources)
SCDM Good Clinical Data Management Practices (GCDMP), Chapter: Electronic Data Capture (EDC) Systems, Section 6.3 SOP Adaptation for EDC Implementation FDA 21 CFR Part 11 Electronic Records; Electronic Signatures ICH E6 (R2) Good Clinical Practice, Section 5.5.3 Data Handling and Validation

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QUESTION: 16

What method is used for quality control of the query resolution process?

Calculate the time from discrepancy identified to query sent.
Tabulate the number of queries sent per site.
Calculate the time from query sent to query resolution from the site.
Perform random audits of the resolved query forms.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The most effective method for quality control (QC) of the query resolution process is to perform random audits of resolved query forms. This ensures that queries are being appropriately raised,

addressed, and resolved in accordance with the study protocol, data management plan (DMP), and standard operating procedures (SOPs).
According to the GCDMP (Chapter: Data Validation and Cleaning), QC activities should verify that the data review and query management process maintains high accuracy and consistency. Random auditing of resolved queries enables verification that:
Queries were raised for legitimate discrepancies,
The site's responses were appropriate, and
The resolution actions taken by data management were correct and well-documented. Metrics such as turnaround time (options A and C) or query counts (option B) measure efficiency but do not assess quality. True quality control focuses on ensuring that data corrections preserve accuracy, auditability, and traceability -- the fundamental principles of data integrity in clinical research.

Reference:

(CCDM-Verified Sources)
SCDM Good Clinical Data Management Practices (GCDMP), Chapter: Data Validation and Cleaning, Section 5.4 Query Management and Quality Control
ICH E6 (R2) GCP, Section 5.5.3 Data Integrity and Validation Procedures

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SCDM CCDM Exam (page: 2) SCDM Certified Clinical Data Manager Updated on: 07-Feb-2026

QUESTION: 9

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QUESTION: 10

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QUESTION: 11

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QUESTION: 12

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QUESTION: 13

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QUESTION: 14

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QUESTION: 15

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QUESTION: 16

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SCDM CCDM Exam (page: 2)
SCDM Certified Clinical Data Manager
Updated on: 07-Feb-2026