Scaled Agile SAFe DevOps Practitioner SDP (6.0) SAFe DevOps Dumps in PDF

Free Scaled Agile SAFe DevOps Real Questions (page: 18)

What is one potential outcome of the Verify activity of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline?

  1. Fix a broken build
  2. Capture usage metrics from a canary release
  3. Roll back a failed deployment
  4. Analyze regression testing results

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, one potential outcome of the Verify activity of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline is to analyze regression testing results. This means that the Verify activity involves checking the functionality and performance of the Solution after a deployment, and comparing it with the expected results. The handbook states that "Verify is the activity of checking the functionality and performance of the Solution after a deployment, and comparing it with the expected results."1 Therefore, one of the possible outcomes of this activity is to analyze how well the Solution meets the quality standards and customer requirements.



Which statement illustrates the biggest bottleneck?

  1. WT = 5 days, AT = 2.5 days, %C&A = 100%
  2. WT = 10 days, AT = 0.5 day, %C&A = 100%
  3. WT = 1 day, AT = 0.5 day, %C&A = 90%
  4. WT = 6 days, AT = 5 days, %C&A = 100%

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, the statement that illustrates the biggest bottleneck is B. WT = 10 days, AT = 0.5 day, %C&A = 100%. This means that the value stream has the longest lead time (WT), the shortest actual time (AT), and the highest relative economic value (C&A). These are the three metrics that are used to measure and optimize the value stream performance. The handbook states that "The three metrics used to measure and optimize value stream performance are WT, AT, and %C&A."1 Therefore, a bigger bottleneck indicates a lower value stream efficiency and a higher waste or inefficiency.



The DevOps Health Radar aligns the four aspects of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline to which four stakeholder concerns?

  1. Portfolio, Solution, ART, team
  2. Productivity, efficiency, speed-to-market, competitive advantage
  3. Exploration, integration, development, reflection
  4. Alignment, quality, time-to-market, business value

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The DevOps Health Radar aligns the four aspects of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline to four stakeholder concerns: alignment, quality, time-to-market, and business value. The DevOps Health Radar is a tool that helps Agile Release Trains (ARTs) and Solution Trains assess their ability to Release on Demand, which is the process of delivering value to customers whenever there is a business need. The DevOps Health Radar consists of four dimensions that correspond to the four aspects of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline: Continuous Exploration (CE), Continuous Integration (CI), Continuous Deployment (CD), and Release on Demand. Each dimension has four sub- dimensions that reflect the key practices and capabilities that enable the flow of value. The DevOps Health Radar helps the ARTs and Solution Trains to measure their maturity in each sub-dimension, using a scale of Sit, Crawl, Walk, Run, or Fly. The DevOps Health Radar also helps the ARTs and Solution Trains to identify the gaps and improvement opportunities in their DevOps practices, and to prioritize the next steps toward achieving higher levels of maturity. The DevOps Health Radar aligns the four aspects of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline to four stakeholder concerns, as shown in Figure
1:
Alignment ­ Alignment is the concern of ensuring that the solution is aligned with the customer needs, market opportunities, and strategic goals of the enterprise. Alignment is achieved by applying the CE aspect, which involves exploring the market and customer problems, defining a vision, roadmap, and set of features for the solution, and validating the assumptions and hypotheses with customer feedback and data.
Quality ­ Quality is the concern of ensuring that the solution meets the functional and nonfunctional requirements and standards, and that it does not introduce any defects or vulnerabilities. Quality is achieved by applying the CI aspect, which involves developing, testing, integrating, and validating new functionality in preparation for deployment and release. Time-to-market ­ Time-to-market is the concern of ensuring that the solution can be delivered and deployed to the production environment as fast and as frequently as possible, without compromising quality or security. Time-to-market is achieved by applying the CD aspect, which involves automating and streamlining the deployment process, and ensuring the stability and reliability of the production environment.
Business value ­ Business value is the concern of ensuring that the solution delivers the expected outcomes and benefits to the customer and the enterprise, and that it can be adapted and improved based on the changing needs and feedback. Business value is achieved by applying the Release on

Demand aspect, which involves releasing new functionality to the customer incrementally or immediately, based on the market demand, and measuring and learning from the results12

1: https://scaledagileframework.com/blog/assess-your-devops-health-with-the-safe-devops-radar/
2: https://support.scaledagile.com/s/article/Exam-Study-Guide-SDP-6-0-SAFe-for-DevOps



Which metric reflects the quality of output at each step in the Value Stream?

  1. Code quality
  2. Active Time
  3. Percent Complete and Accurate (%C&A)
  4. Flow Efficiency

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, the metric that reflects the quality of output at each step in the Value Stream is Percent Complete and Accurate (%C&A). This metric measures the relative cost of delay divided by the relative job duration, which indicates how efficiently the value stream delivers value to customers. The handbook states that "Percent Complete and Accurate (%C&A) is a metric that measures the relative cost of delay divided by the relative job duration."1 Therefore, %C&A helps teams identify and eliminate any waste or inefficiencies in their value stream.



Which practice helps developers deploy their code into production?

  1. Deployment automation
  2. Continuous Deployment
  3. Infrastructure as code
  4. Self-service deployment

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, Continuous Deployment is a practice that helps developers deploy their code into production. This means that Continuous Deployment involves moving changes from the staging environment to the production environment, without requiring manual intervention or approval. The handbook states that "Continuous Deployment is the practice of moving changes from the staging environment to the production environment, without requiring manual intervention or approval."1 Therefore, Continuous Deployment enables teams to deliver value to customers faster and more reliably.



Share your comments for Scaled Agile SAFe DevOps exam with other users:

M
Mamo
8/12/2023 7:46:00 AM

will these question help me to clear pl-300 exam?

M
Marial Manyang
7/26/2023 10:13:00 AM

please provide me with these dumps questions. thanks

A
Amel Mhamdi
12/16/2022 10:10:00 AM

in the pdf downloaded is write google cloud database engineer i think that it isnt the correct exam

A
Angel
8/30/2023 10:58:00 PM

i think you have the answers wrong regarding question: "what are three core principles of web content accessibility guidelines (wcag)? answer: robust, operable, understandable

S
SH
5/16/2023 1:43:00 PM

these questions are not valid , they dont come for the exam now

S
sudhagar
9/6/2023 3:02:00 PM

question looks valid

V
Van
11/24/2023 4:02:00 AM

good for practice

D
Divya
8/2/2023 6:54:00 AM

need more q&a to go ahead

R
Rakesh
10/6/2023 3:06:00 AM

question 59 - a newly-created role is not assigned to any user, nor granted to any other role. answer is b https://docs.snowflake.com/en/user-guide/security-access-control-overview

N
Nik
11/10/2023 4:57:00 AM

just passed my exam today. i saw all of these questions in my text today. so i can confirm this is a valid dump.

D
Deep
6/12/2023 7:22:00 AM

needed dumps

T
tumz
1/16/2024 10:30:00 AM

very helpful

N
NRI
8/27/2023 10:05:00 AM

will post once the exam is finished

K
kent
11/3/2023 10:45:00 AM

relevant questions

Q
Qasim
6/11/2022 9:43:00 AM

just clear exam on 10/06/2202 dumps is valid all questions are came same in dumps only 2 new questions total 46 questions 1 case study with 5 question no lab/simulation in my exam please check the answers best of luck

C
Cath
10/10/2023 10:09:00 AM

q.112 - correct answer is c - the event registry is a module that provides event definitions. answer a - not correct as it is the definition of event log

S
Shiji
10/15/2023 1:31:00 PM

good and useful.

A
Ade
6/25/2023 1:14:00 PM

good questions

P
Praveen P
11/8/2023 5:18:00 AM

good content

A
Anastasiia
12/28/2023 9:06:00 AM

totally not correct answers. 21. you have one gcp account running in your default region and zone and another account running in a non-default region and zone. you want to start a new compute engine instance in these two google cloud platform accounts using the command line interface. what should you do? correct: create two configurations using gcloud config configurations create [name]. run gcloud config configurations activate [name] to switch between accounts when running the commands to start the compute engine instances.

P
Priyanka
7/24/2023 2:26:00 AM

kindly upload the dumps

N
Nabeel
7/25/2023 4:11:00 PM

still learning

G
gure
7/26/2023 5:10:00 PM

excellent way to learn

C
ciken
8/24/2023 2:55:00 PM

help so much

B
Biswa
11/20/2023 9:28:00 AM

understand sql col.

S
Saint Pierre
10/24/2023 6:21:00 AM

i would give 5 stars to this website as i studied for az-800 exam from here. it has all the relevant material available for preparation. i got 890/1000 on the test.

R
Rose
7/24/2023 2:16:00 PM

this is nice.

A
anon
10/15/2023 12:21:00 PM

q55- the ridac workflow can be modified using flow designer, correct answer is d not a

N
NanoTek3
6/13/2022 10:44:00 PM

by far this is the most accurate exam dumps i have ever purchased. all questions are in the exam. i saw almost 90% of the questions word by word.

E
eriy
11/9/2023 5:12:00 AM

i cleared the az-104 exam by scoring 930/1000 on the exam. it was all possible due to this platform as it provides premium quality service. thank you!

M
Muhammad Rawish Siddiqui
12/8/2023 8:12:00 PM

question # 232: accessibility, privacy, and innovation are not data quality dimensions.

V
Venkat
12/27/2023 9:04:00 AM

looks wrong answer for 443 question, please check and update

V
Varun
10/29/2023 9:11:00 PM

great question

D
Doc
10/29/2023 9:36:00 PM

question: a user wants to start a recruiting posting job posting. what must occur before the posting process can begin? 3 ans: comment- option e is incorrect reason: as part of enablement steps, sap recommends that to be able to post jobs to a job board, a user need to have the correct permission and secondly, be associated with one posting profile at minimum

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!