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Salesforce Certified CPQ Administrator Sales-Admn-202 Dumps in PDF

Free Salesforce Sales-Admn-202 Real Questions (page: 17)

Sales-Admn-202 PDF — 213 Questions

Universal Containers wants to make sure that Product Option A is included when Product B is being configured and sold Sales reps should be unable to remove Product A.
Which field should be set for the Product Option A?

  1. Bundled
  2. Required
  3. Quantity Editable
  4. Selected

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Understanding the Requirement:
Universal Containers needs Product Option A to be automatically included with Product B during the configuration.
Sales reps should not be able to remove Product Option A.
Salesforce CPQ Mechanism:
The Required field on a Product Option ensures that it is mandatory within a bundle and cannot be deselected by the user during configuration.
Field Behavior:
When the Required checkbox is selected for a Product Option:
The option is always included in the bundle configuration. Users cannot remove or modify it unless additional automation (like a product rule) overrides this setting.
Configuration Steps:
Navigate to the Product Option A record associated with Product B in Salesforce CPQ.
Select the Required checkbox and save the changes.
Ensure that no conflicting product or price rules exist that could affect this behavior.
Field Alternatives and Clarifications:
Bundled: Sets the option as a part of the bundle, but this primarily affects pricing (sets price to zero) and doesn't enforce inclusion.
Quantity Editable: Allows control over whether users can adjust the quantity but does not prevent removal.
Selected: Preselects the option during configuration but still allows users to deselect it.
Verification and Testing:
Create a test configuration with Product B as the parent and verify that Product A is always included in the bundle.
Attempt to remove Product A to confirm that it is not possible.


Reference:

Verified from Salesforce CPQ official guidelines on "Required" field functionality for Product Options.



What are two ways Salesforce CPQ Advanced Approvals support obtaining apprgvat from a group in a single Approval Steps?
Choose 2 answers

  1. Any group member may approve.
  2. Smart Approvals can exclude group members below the approval threshold.
  3. Approval must be obtained from one group member at a time.
  4. All group members most approve.

Answer(s): A,D

Explanation:

Approval Scenarios in Advanced Approvals:Salesforce CPQ Advanced Approvals allows flexible approval processes, including the ability to handle group approvals within a single step.
Key Features:
Any group member may approve: If this option is configured, approval from one group member is sufficient to move the approval step forward.
All group members must approve: When this option is selected, every group member must approve the request before the step can proceed.
Configuration Steps:
Navigate to the Approval Rule and ensure that the Approval Chain or Approval Step is configured to support group-based logic.
Specify the behavior for the group in the Approval Step Settings.
Use Cases:
Use "Any group member may approve" for time-sensitive scenarios. Use "All group members must approve" for critical approvals that require consensus.



An Admin wants to generate one Asset record for each Quantity of a new Product. Currently, zero Asset records are generated for this Product when included on Quotes that are Contracted.
Which setting should the Admin change to meet the business requirement?

  1. Set the Product field Asset Conversion picklist to One per Unit.
  2. Set the CPQ Package setting Renewal Model to Asset Based.
  3. Set the Account field Renewal Model to Asset Based.
  4. Set the Product field Asset Amendment Behavior picklist to Allow Refund.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Requirement Overview:
Admin needs to generate one Asset record for each unit of the Product upon contracting.
Solution Details:
The Asset Conversion field determines how Salesforce CPQ creates Asset records from Quote Lines. Setting Asset Conversion to One per Unit ensures that for each quantity of the Product, a corresponding Asset is created.
Steps to Configure:
Navigate to the Product record.

Locate the Asset Conversion picklist and select One per Unit. Save and test the configuration by creating a Quote, contracting it, and verifying the Asset creation.



Universal Conditions wants its users to be able to apply Additional Discounts in the Line Editor at both the Quote and Group level.
Which two steps should the Admin take to fulfil this requirement? Choose 2 answers

  1. Add Additional Disc. to the Line Editor Field set on the Quote Line object.
  2. Add Additional Disc. (%) to the Line Editor Field Set on the Quote object.
  3. Add Additional Disc. (%) to the Line Editor Field Set on the Quote Line Group object.
  4. Add Additional Disc. to the Segmented Line Editor Field Set on the Quote Line object.

Answer(s): B,C

Explanation:

Requirement Overview:
Admin needs to enable Additional Discounts at both the Quote and Group levels in the Line Editor.
Solution Steps:
For the Quote Object:
Navigate to Setup > Object Manager > Quote.
Locate the Line Editor Field Set.
Add the Additional Disc. (%) field to the field set.
For the Quote Line Group Object:
Navigate to Setup > Object Manager > Quote Line Group.
Locate the Line Editor Field Set.
Add the Additional Disc. (%) field to the field set.
Testing:
Open the Quote Line Editor and confirm the visibility of the Additional Discount fields at both levels.



Universal Containers has a high volume of contracts that are renewed each year. Recently, a number of orders have failed to generate a contract despite those orders being activated and containing subscription-based products.
Where should the admin look to identify the source of the error?

  1. Debug Logs
  2. Apex Jobs
  3. Record Jobs
  4. Paused & Failed Flow Interviews

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Scenario:
Contracts are not being generated for activated Orders containing subscription-based products.
Why Debug Logs?
Debug Logs capture real-time system activity, including Apex triggers and CPQ package processes. They provide detailed error messages and can identify issues such as missing triggers, misconfigured objects, or dependency errors.
Steps to Investigate:
Enable Debug Logs in Salesforce Setup for the affected user or system process. Perform the action that generates the error (e.g., activating the Order). Review the logs for errors related to Contract generation.



The sales team at Universal Containers (UC) has received customer feedback that numerous lines on a typical Quote make it difficult to understand how the total amount breaks down across the various types of Products: Hardware, Software, and Professional Services. UC uses Quote Templates to generate Quote Documents.
Which solution would allow customers to see separate tables and subtotals organized by Product Family?

  1. Create Roll-Up Summary fields on the Quote for each Product Family and add them as merge fields to the Template Top.
  2. Create a Line Items section and set SBQQ__ProductFamily__c as the Group field.
  3. Create an HTML Template Content record with three tables to represent each Product Family.
  4. Create a Line Items section and set SBQQ__ProductFamily_c as the Roll-Up field.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Requirement Overview:
Universal Containers wants to show Quote Line items grouped by Product Family with subtotals for each family in Quote Documents.
Solution Details:
Salesforce CPQ allows grouping of Line Items in Quote Templates. Setting SBQQ__ProductFamily__c as the Group field organizes the Quote Lines into separate sections for each Product Family.
Configuration Steps:
Navigate to the Quote Template.
Create a new Line Items Section.
In the Grouping field, set SBQQ__ProductFamily__c.
Save and test the template by generating a Quote Document.
Validation:
Confirm that the generated document displays separate tables for Hardware, Software, and Professional Services, with subtotals for each group.



Universal Containers (UC) sells Product A for a List Unit Price of S150. One of UCs customers, Cloud Kicks (CK), has negotiated a Contracted Price of S100 for Product A on all of its deals, and has negotiated an additional 10% discretionary discount to be applied for a deal set to close at the end of the month.
If CK purchases 10 units of Product A, what Is the expected List Unit Price, Regular Unit Price, Customer Unit Price, and Net Unit Price?

  1. · List Unit Price: $100· Regular Unit Price: $100· Customer Unit Price: S90· Net Unit Price: $90
  2. · List Unit Price: S1S0· Regular Unit Price: $150· Customer Unit Price: $100· Net Unit Price: $90
  3. · List Unit Price: $150· Regular Unit Price: $150· Customer Unit Price: $140· Net Unit Price: $140
  4. · List Unit Price: $150· Regular Unit Price: $100· Customer Unit Price: $90· Net Unit Price: $90

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Scenario Overview:
List Unit Price: Product A's standard price is $150.
Contracted Price: CK has a contracted price of $100 for Product A. Discretionary Discount: CK negotiated a 10% discretionary discount for this deal.
Price Calculation:
List Unit Price remains the standard price of $150.
Regular Unit Price applies the contracted price of $100. Customer Unit Price: After applying the 10% discretionary discount on the contracted price, CustomerUnitPrice=100-(100×0.1)=90\text{Customer Unit Price} = 100 - (100 \times 0.1) = 90CustomerUnitPrice=100-(100×0.1)=90.
Net Unit Price matches the Customer Unit Price for the 10 units being purchased, which is $90.

Salesforce CPQ


Reference:

Salesforce CPQ Contracted Price logic ensures negotiated prices override the List Price, and additional discretionary discounts apply as expected .



An Admin at Universal Containers wants to set up a product bundle that dynamically generates SKUs depending on what their users choose during the selling process.
Which three fields are required for this type of configuration?

  1. Component Code Position
  2. Custom Configuration Page
  3. Component Description Pattern
  4. Component Code
  5. Configured Code Pattern

Answer(s): A,D,E

Explanation:

Dynamic SKU Generation:
A dynamic SKU is created based on user choices during the configuration process. This requires fields that define patterns and positions for combining components into a single SKU.
Required Fields:
Component Code Position: Determines the position of each component in the SKU. Component Code: Represents individual product codes that contribute to the SKU. Configured Code Pattern: Defines the overall pattern of the dynamically generated SKU.
Salesforce CPQ


Reference:

Dynamic SKU creation is described under Configuration and Product Bundling Guidelines .



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:49:11 AM

Question 3:
Question 3 asks for two valid ways to meet the purchase order creation validation (warn if the vendor is on the exclusion list for the customer/product and block/alert accordingly).
Correct answers: C and D

  • C: In Application Explorer, create a form extension and implement validation.
- Extend the Purchase Order creation form and add validation logic (e.g., before save/submit) to check VendExclusions for the customer/item and show a warning or block the PO as needed.
  • D: Implement Chain of Command (CoC) and method wrapping by creating a form extension class.
- Use CoC to wrap the target PO creation method, perform the exclusion check after calling super(), and enforce the rule (warning or prevent creation).
Why not A or B?
  • A (class with a form data source event handler) is not the standard pattern for this UI-level validation scenario and is less direct for enforcing creation-time behavior.
  • B (table extension with validation) cannot sufficiently enforce the UI-level workflow or trigger user-facing warnings during PO creation.

So, the two valid techniques are C and D, reflecting the recommended form-extension patterns: direct form validation and CoC-based method wrapping.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

Oslo, Norway
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
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