Amazon
Avaya
Cisco
CompTIA
CrowdStrike
EC-Council
EXIN
Fortinet
Google
ISC
ISC2
ITIL
Juniper
Microsoft
NVIDIA
Okta
Palo Alto Networks
Salesforce
SAP
ServiceNow
All Vendors

Salesforce Certified Platform Administrator (Plat-Admn-201) Certified Platform Administrator II Dumps in PDF

Free Salesforce Certified Platform Administrator II Real Questions (page: 11)

Certified Platform Administrator II PDF — 150 Questions

A user started to work remotely. They are having an Issue logging in.
What could be the issue?

  1. The login session has expired for this user.
  2. They are signing in from a mobile device.
  3. The time zone for the profile is outside of login hours.
  4. The user Is not In the IP range for their profile.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

IP ranges are settings that restrict login access to Salesforce from specific IP addresses. Administrators can set IP ranges at the org level or at the profile level. If a user tries to log in from an IP address that is outside the allowed range for their profile or their org, they will not be able to access Salesforce. Therefore, if a user started to work remotely and is having an issue logging in, it could be because they are not in the IP range for their profile or their org.


Reference:

https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=sf.security_networkaccess.htm&type=5



The administrator at Universal Containers does a soft launch of the Salesforce Authenticator app and allows users to optionally use it to log In. The administrator would now like to look at how many users have successfully used it since It was rolled out.

What are two ways the administrator can get this Information? Choose 2 answers

  1. Create a new view In Identity Verification History, specifying Method.
  2. Open the Login Access Policies In Setup which shows how many users are using MFA.
  3. Run a session setting report, specifying login methods by user.
  4. Export Login History and filter based off of Authentication Method Reference

Answer(s): A,D

Explanation:

Salesforce Authenticator is an app that adds an extra layer of security for logging into Salesforce by requiring users to verify their identity using their mobile device after entering their username and password on Salesforce login page. To see how many users have successfully used Salesforce Authenticator since it was rolled out, an administrator can use two methods:
A) Create a new view In Identity Verification History, specifying Method. Identity Verification History is a tool that shows information about each identity verification event for users in your org, such as the date and time, the verification method used, the IP address, and the status of the verification. By creating a new view in Identity Verification History and specifying the method as Salesforce Authenticator, an administrator can see how many users have used the app to verify their identity when logging in.


Reference:

https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=sf.identity_verification_history.htm&type=5 D) Export Login History and filter based off of Authentication Method Reference. Login History is a tool that shows information about each login attempt for users in your org, such as the date and time, the username, the source IP address, the login type, and the status of the login. By exporting Login History as a CSV file and filtering based on the Authentication Method Reference column, an administrator can see how many users have used Salesforce Authenticator as their authentication method when logging in.

https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=sf.monitoring_login_history.htm&type=5



DreamHouse Realty manages Its accounts and contacts In Salesforce using a B2C account model. The business has requested that third-party loan advisors be tracked in Salesforce along with the customers they work with.
Hour should the administrator track third-party financial advisors and the customers they work with?

  1. Create a Hierarchical lookup on Account to track loan advisors' customers.
  2. Set up Contacts to Multiple Accounts for loan advisors.
  3. Use a B2B Account Model to track loan advisors' customers.
  4. Use a Hierarchical lookup on Contact to track loan advisors' customers.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Contacts to Multiple Accounts is a feature that allows administrators to relate a contact to multiple accounts without creating duplicate contacts for each account. This feature is useful for scenarios where a contact has business relationships with more than one account, such as consultants, brokers, or loan advisors. By setting up Contacts to Multiple Accounts for loan advisors at DreamHouse Realty, administrators can track which loan advisors work with which customers and which accounts without creating duplicate contacts for each account.


Reference:

https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=sf.contacts_multiple_accounts_overview.htm&type=5



Which two ways can an administrator review the page performance for a Lightning record page? Choose 2 answers

  1. Lightning Usage App
  2. Analyze Button
  3. Activation Button
  4. Pages Menu

Answer(s): A,B

Explanation:

To review the performance of a Lightning record page, administrators can utilize two key tools:
Lightning Usage App:
The Lightning Usage App provides insights into user engagement and performance metrics for Lightning Experience.
Within this app, administrators can view specific metrics related to page load times and other performance factors.
This is a helpful resource for tracking usage and identifying potential issues with page speed or performance across the org.
Analyze Button:
The Analyze button is available within the Lightning App Builder when editing a Lightning record page.
By clicking this button, administrators can run a performance analysis on the page layout, which provides specific recommendations for optimizing page load times and improving overall user experience.
The tool evaluates components, their configuration, and potential sources of delay, giving direct feedback on areas to improve.
These two options directly provide performance analysis capabilities for Lightning record pages. The other options listed do not offer direct access to page performance metrics:
Activation Button is used for setting page visibility rules and activating a page, not for performance analysis.
Pages Menu helps in navigating and managing pages but does not provide performance metrics. Using both the Lightning Usage App and the Analyze button allows administrators to comprehensively review and optimize Lightning page performance for improved user experience.


Reference:

As indicated in Salesforce documentation, the Analyze button within the Lightning App Builder and the Lightning Usage App are the recommended tools for reviewing and optimizing Lightning page performance.



The Cloud Kicks online Lead Intake form was recently updated to allow for new choices on some older picklist fields. The leads are all being created properly in Salesforce, but reps are getting errors as they try to work the leads.
What tool should the administrator use to evaluate what is causing the errors?

  1. Login History
  2. Debug Log
  3. Setup Audit Log
  4. Record History

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Debug Log is a tool that captures information about database operations, system processes, and errors that occur when executing a transaction or running a unit test. Debug Log can help troubleshoot issues related to triggers, workflows, validation rules, or other custom logic by showing the order of execution and the values of variables and expressions



Cloud Kicks (CK) has a filed called Shoe Type Preference, CK,s product team wants to see a report that groups specific picklist values together into the one of two lists.
What functionality should the administrator use to fulfill the team's request?

  1. PREVGROUPVALUE
  2. Summary Formula
  3. Bucket field
  4. Matrix Report

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Bucket field is a feature that allows administrators to group report values into categories without changing the data in Salesforce. Bucket field can help simplify reports and charts by reducing the number of values displayed and summarizing data based on criteria such as ranges or groups. Bucket field can be used to group specific picklist values together into one of two lists



Sales teams at Cloud Kicks ask each visiting customer to fill out a form that capturing their contact information and some basic footwear preferences. This information is saved to a spreadsheet and used by the sales team to alert their contacts when new shows are added to the inventory that matches their preferences. The sales team wants to be able to track this in Salesforce and see the information when viewing the contact
Record.
Which two ways should the administrator configure this requirement? Choose 2 answers

  1. Data Loader
  2. Lookup Field
  3. Lightning Object Creator
  4. Schema Builder

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

Data Loader is a tool that allows administrators to import, export, insert, update, delete, or upsert records in Salesforce using CSV files. Data Loader can handle large data sets and complex data transformations. Data Loader can be used to import records for a custom object from a spreadsheet. Lightning Object Creator is a tool that allows administrators to create custom objects in Salesforce from spreadsheets. Lightning Object Creator can automatically map spreadsheet columns to fields and create relationships between objects. Lightning Object Creator can be used to create a custom object from a spreadsheet and import records at the same time.



The sales agents at DreamHouse Realty have a profile that allows them to import records for a custom object called House. The agents only need to make imports occasionally and typically Import around 100 new records at a time.
What tool should the agents use to upload records?

  1. Bulk API
  2. Apex
  3. Date Import Wizard
  4. Data Loader

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Data Import Wizard is a tool that allows administrators to import data for standard and custom objects in Salesforce using CSV files. Data Import Wizard can handle up to 50,000 records at a time and supports simple data transformations and validations. Data Import Wizard can be used to upload records for a custom object when the number of records is small and the import frequency is low.



PDF
Viewing page 11 of 29

Share your comments for Salesforce Certified Platform Administrator II exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

Oslo, Norway
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!