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Salesforce Certified Agentforce Specialist Certified Agentforce Specialist Dumps in PDF

Free Salesforce Certified Agentforce Specialist Real Questions (page: 8)

Certified Agentforce Specialist PDF — 300 Questions

Universal Containers implements Custom Agent Actions to enhance its customer service operations. The development team needs to understand the core components of a Custom Agent Action to ensure proper configuration and functionality.
What should the development team review in the Custom Agent Action configuration to identify one of the core components of a Custom Agent Action?

  1. Action Triggers
  2. Instructions
  3. Output Types

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

UC's development team needs to identify a core component of a Custom Agent Action in Agent Builder. Let's assess the options.

Option A: Action Triggers

"Action Triggers" isn't a term used in Agentforce Custom Agent Action configuration. Actions are invoked by topics or plans, not standalone triggers, making this incorrect.

Option B: Instructions

Instructions are a core component of a Custom Agent Action in Agentforce. Defined in Agent Builder, they guide the Atlas Reasoning Engine on how to execute the action (e.g., what to do with inputs, how to process data). Reviewing the instructions helps the team understand the action's purpose and logic, making this the correct answer.

Option C: Output Types

While outputs are part of an action's result, "Output Types" isn't a distinct configuration element in Agent Builder. Outputs are determined by the action's execution (e.g., Flow or Apex), not a separate setting, making this less core and incorrect.

Why Option B is Correct:

Instructions are a fundamental component of Custom Agent Actions, providing the AI's execution directives, as per Salesforce documentation.


Reference:

Salesforce Agentforce Documentation: Agent Builder > Custom Actions ­ Highlights instructions as key.

Trailhead: Build Agents with Agentforce ­ Details configuring actions with instructions.

Salesforce Help: Create Custom Actions ­ Confirms instructions' role.



An Agentforce Specialist wants to troubleshoot their Agent's performance.
Where should the

Agentforce Specialist go to access all user interactions with the Agent, including Agent errors, incorrectly triggered actions, and incomplete plans?

  1. Plan Canvas
  2. Agent Settings
  3. Event Logs

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The Agentforce Specialist needs a comprehensive view of user interactions, errors, and action issues for troubleshooting. Let's evaluate the options.

Option A: Plan Canvas

Plan Canvas in Agent Builder visualizes an agent's execution plan for a single interaction, useful for design but not for aggregated troubleshooting data like errors or all interactions, making it incorrect.

Option B: Agent Settings

Agent Settings configure the agent (e.g., topics, channels), not provide interaction logs or error details. This is for setup, not analysis, making it incorrect.

Option C: Event Logs

Event Logs in Agentforce (accessible via Setup or Agent Analytics) record all user interactions, including errors, incorrectly triggered actions, and incomplete plans. They provide detailed telemetry (e.g., timestamps, action outcomes) for troubleshooting performance issues, making this the correct answer.

Why Option C is Correct:

Event Logs offer the full scope of interaction data needed for troubleshooting, as per Salesforce documentation.


Reference:

Salesforce Agentforce Documentation: Agent Analytics > Event Logs ­ Details interaction and error logging.

Trailhead: Monitor and Optimize Agentforce Agents ­ Recommends Event Logs for troubleshooting.

Salesforce Help: Agentforce Performance ­ Confirms logs for diagnostics.



Which element in the Omni-Channel Flow should be used to connect the flow with the agent?

  1. Route Work Action
  2. Assignment
  3. Decision

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

UC is integrating an Agentforce agent with Omni-Channel Flow to route work. Let's identify the correct element.

Option A: Route Work Action

The "Route Work" action in Omni-Channel Flow assigns work items (e.g., cases, chats) to agents or queues based on routing rules.
When connecting to an Agentforce agent, this action links the flow to the agent's queue or presence, enabling interaction. This is the standard element for agent integration, making it the correct answer.

Option B: Assignment

There's no "Assignment" element in Flow Builder for Omni-Channel. Assignment rules exist separately, but within flows, routing is handled by "Route Work," making this incorrect.

Option C: Decision

The "Decision" element branches logic, not connects to agents. It's a control structure, not a routing mechanism, making it incorrect.

Why Option A is Correct:

"Route Work" is the designated Omni-Channel Flow action for connecting to agents, including Agentforce agents, per Salesforce documentation.


Reference:

Salesforce Agentforce Documentation: Omni-Channel Integration ­ Specifies "Route Work" for agents.

Trailhead: Omni-Channel Flow Basics ­ Details routing actions.

Salesforce Help: Set Up Omni-Channel Flows ­ Confirms "Route Work" usage.



What is true of Agentforce Testing Center?

  1. Running tests risks modifying CRM data in a production environment.
  2. Running tests does not consume Einstein Requests.
  3. Agentforce Testing Center can only be used in a production environment.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The Agentforce Testing Center is a tool in Agentforce Studio for validating agent performance. Let's evaluate the statements.

Option A: Running tests risks modifying CRM data in a production environment.

Agentforce Testing Center runs synthetic interactions in a controlled environment (e.g., sandbox or isolated test space) and doesn't modify live CRM data. It's designed for safe pre-deployment testing, making this incorrect.

Option B: Running tests does not consume Einstein Requests.

Einstein Requests are part of the usage quota for Einstein Generative AI features (e.g., prompt executions in production). Testing Center uses synthetic data to simulate interactions without invoking live AI calls that count against this quota. Salesforce documentation confirms tests don't consume requests, making this the correct answer.

Option C: Agentforce Testing Center can only be used in a production environment.

Testing Center is available in both sandbox and production orgs, but it's primarily used pre- deployment (e.g., in sandboxes) to validate agents safely. This restriction is false, making it incorrect.

Why Option B is Correct:

Not consuming Einstein Requests is a key feature of Testing Center, allowing extensive testing without impacting quotas, as per Salesforce documentation.


Reference:

Salesforce Agentforce Documentation: Testing Center > Overview ­ Confirms no request consumption.

Trailhead: Test Your Agentforce Agents ­ Notes quota-free testing.

Salesforce Help: Agentforce Testing ­ Details safe, isolated testing.



Universal Containers (UC) wants to enable its sales team to use AI to suggest recommended products from its catalog.
Which type of prompt template should UC use?

  1. Record summary prompt template
  2. Email generation prompt template
  3. Flex prompt template

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

UC needs an AI solution to suggest products from a catalog for its sales team. Let's assess the prompt template types in Prompt Builder.

Option A: Record summary prompt template

Record summary templates generate concise summaries of records (e.g., Case, Opportunity). They're not designed for product recommendations, which require dynamic logic beyond summarization, making this incorrect.

Option B: Email generation prompt template

Email generation templates craft emails (e.g., customer outreach).
While they could mention products, they're not optimized for standalone recommendations, making this incorrect.

Option C: Flex prompt template

Flex prompt templates are versatile, allowing custom inputs (e.g., catalog data from objects or Data Cloud) and instructions (e.g., "Suggest products based on customer preferences"). This flexibility suits UC's need to recommend products dynamically, making it the correct answer.

Why Option C is Correct:

Flex templates offer the customization needed to suggest products from a catalog, aligning with Salesforce's guidance for tailored AI outputs.


Reference:

Salesforce Agentforce Documentation: Prompt Builder > Flex Templates ­ Details dynamic use cases.

Trailhead: Build Prompt Templates in Agentforce ­ Covers Flex for custom scenarios.

Salesforce Help: Prompt Template Types ­ Confirms Flex versatility.



A data scientist needs to view and manage models in Einstein Studio, and also needs to create prompt templates in Prompt Builder.
Which permission sets should an Agentforce Specialist assign to the data scientist?

  1. Prompt Template Manager and Prompt Template User
  2. Data Cloud Admin and Prompt Template Manager
  3. Prompt Template User and Data Cloud Admin

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The data scientist requires permissions for Einstein Studio (model management) and Prompt Builder (template creation).
Note: "Einstein Studio" may be a misnomer for Data Cloud's model management or a related tool, but we'll interpret based on context. Let's evaluate.

Option A: Prompt Template Manager and Prompt Template User

There's no distinct "Prompt Template Manager" or "Prompt Template User" permission set in Salesforce--Prompt Builder access is typically via "Einstein Generative AI User" or similar. This option lacks coverage for Einstein Studio/Data Cloud, making it incorrect.

Option B: Data Cloud Admin and Prompt Template Manager

The "Data Cloud Admin" permission set grants access to manage models in Data Cloud (assumed as Einstein Studio's context), including viewing and editing AI models. "Prompt Template Manager" isn't a real set, but Prompt Builder creation is covered by "Einstein Generative AI Admin" or similar admin-level access (assumed intent). This combination approximates the needs, making it the closest correct answer despite naming ambiguity.

Option C: Prompt Template User and Data Cloud Admin

"Prompt Template User" isn't a standard set, and user-level access (e.g., Einstein Generative AI User) typically allows execution, not creation. The data scientist needs to create templates, so this lacks sufficient Prompt Builder rights, making it incorrect.

Why Option B is Correct (with Caveat):

"Data Cloud Admin" covers model management in Data Cloud (likely intended as Einstein Studio), and "Prompt Template Manager" is interpreted as admin-level Prompt Builder access (e.g., Einstein Generative AI Admin). Despite naming inconsistencies, this fits the requirements per Salesforce permissions structure.


Reference:

Salesforce Data Cloud Documentation: Permissions ­ Details Data Cloud Admin for models.

Trailhead: Set Up Einstein Generative AI ­ Covers Prompt Builder admin access.

Salesforce Help: Agentforce Permission Sets ­ Aligns with admin-level needs.



Universal Containers wants to leverage the Record Snapshots grounding feature in a prompt template.
What preparations are required?

  1. Configure page layout of the master record type.
  2. Create a field set for all the fields to be grounded.
  3. Enable and configure dynamic form for the object.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Record Snapshots in Salesforce Prompt Builder leverage the data visible on the user's page layout for an object to ground the prompt. This means that the fields and related lists that are configured on the page layout directly influence the data included in the snapshot.



Which scenario best demonstrates when an Agentforce Data Library is most useful for improving an AI agent's response accuracy?

  1. When the AI agent must provide answers based on a curated set of policy documents that are stored, regularly updated, and indexed in the data library.
  2. When the AI agent needs to combine data from disparate sources based on mutually common data, such as Customer Id and Product Id for grounding.
  3. When data is being retrieved from Snowflake using zero-copy for vectorization and retrieval.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The Agentforce Data Library enhances AI accuracy by grounding responses in curated, indexed data.
Let's assess the scenarios.

Option A: When the AI agent must provide answers based on a curated set of policy documents that are stored, regularly updated, and indexed in the data library.

The Data Library is designed to store and index structured content (e.g., Knowledge articles, policy documents) for semantic search and grounding. It excels when an agent needs accurate, up-to-date responses from a managed corpus, like policy documents, ensuring relevance and reducing hallucinations. This is a prime use case per Salesforce documentation, making it the correct answer.

Option B: When the AI agent needs to combine data from disparate sources based on mutually common data, such as Customer Id and Product Id for grounding.

Combining disparate sources is more suited to Data Cloud's ingestion and harmonization capabilities, not the Data Library, which focuses on indexed content retrieval. This scenario is less aligned, making it incorrect.

Option C: When data is being retrieved from Snowflake using zero-copy for vectorization and retrieval.

Zero-copy integration with Snowflake is a Data Cloud feature, but the Data Library isn't specifically tied to this process--it's about indexed libraries, not direct external retrieval. This is a different context, making it incorrect.

Why Option A is Correct:

The Data Library shines in curated, indexed content scenarios like policy documents, improving agent accuracy, as per Salesforce guidelines.


Reference:

Salesforce Agentforce Documentation: Data Library > Use Cases ­ Highlights curated content grounding.

Trailhead: Ground Your Agentforce Prompts ­ Describes Data Library accuracy benefits.

Salesforce Help: Agentforce Data Library ­ Confirms policy document scenario.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
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