OCEG GRC Auditor Certification GRCA Exam Questions in PDF

Free OCEG GRCA Dumps Questions (page: 1)

Which of the following is defined as "a measure of the desirable effect of uncertainty on objectives?

  1. Risk
  2. Compliance
  3. Reward

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Risk is defined as a measure of the desirable effect of uncertainty on objectives. According to the ISO 31000 standard, risk is "the effect of uncertainty on objectives" which can be either positive (opportunity) or negative (threat). This definition encompasses the uncertainty that can impact the achievement of goals and objectives. It highlights that risk is not just about potential losses but also about potential gains that come from taking risks.


Reference:

ISO 31000:2018 - Risk management ­ Guidelines
NIST SP 800-30 Rev. 1 - Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments



The two kinds of PROACTIVE controls are

  1. training and education
  2. promoting and preventive
  3. access and system

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Proactive controls are those measures implemented to prevent undesirable events before they occur. Promoting controls are designed to encourage desired behaviors and outcomes, such as compliance with policies and procedures. Preventive controls are aimed at stopping undesirable events or actions before they happen, such as implementing security measures to prevent unauthorized access. Both types of controls are essential for effective risk management and ensuring the security and integrity of an organization's processes and systems.


Reference:

COSO Internal Control ­ Integrated Framework
ISO/IEC 27002:2013 - Information technology - Security techniques - Code of practice for information security controls



Which of these is defined as "externally directing, controlling and evaluating an entity, process or resource"

  1. Governance
  2. Assurance
  3. Management

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Governance is defined as "externally directing, controlling and evaluating an entity, process, or resource". It involves establishing policies, and continuous monitoring of their proper implementation, by the members of the governing body of an organization. It ensures that the entity is operating effectively and in alignment with its objectives and regulatory requirements. Governance encompasses a wide range of activities, including strategic planning, decision-making, and oversight, all aimed at achieving the entity's goals while managing risk and ensuring compliance.


Reference:

ISO 38500:2015 - Information technology - Governance of IT for the organization OECD Principles of Corporate Governance



Producing Value and Protecting Value are trade-offs. You CANNOT do both at the same time. *

  1. True
  2. False

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The statement that producing value and protecting value are trade-offs and cannot be done at the same time is false. In fact, both can and should be pursued concurrently. Effective governance, risk management, and compliance (GRC) strategies integrate the production of value (achieving business objectives and growth) with the protection of value (safeguarding assets, ensuring compliance, and managing risks). This integrated approach ensures sustainable performance and long-term success. Organizations that balance both aspects can achieve principled performance by reliably achieving objectives, addressing uncertainty, and acting with integrity.


Reference:

ISO 31000:2018 - Risk management ­ Guidelines
COSO Enterprise Risk Management ­ Integrating with Strategy and Performance



Which of the following is defined as "a measure of the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed"

  1. Risk
  2. Compliance
  3. Reward

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Compliance is defined as a measure of the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed. It involves adhering to laws, regulations, policies, and standards that are relevant to the organization. Compliance ensures that the organization meets its legal and ethical obligations, thereby avoiding legal penalties, reputational damage, and operational disruptions. Effective compliance programs involve continuous monitoring, training, and auditing to ensure all requirements are met and maintained.


Reference:

ISO 19600:2014 - Compliance management systems - Guidelines NIST SP 800-37 Rev. 2 - Risk Management Framework for Information Systems and Organizations



Achieving Principled Performance means to:

  1. Be an ethical performer
  2. Reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty and act with integrity
  3. Recycle

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Achieving principled performance means reliably achieving objectives, addressing uncertainty, and acting with integrity. This concept integrates the management of performance, risk, and compliance to ensure that an organization not only meets its goals but does so ethically and sustainably. It involves creating a culture of accountability, transparency, and ethical behavior while systematically managing risks and ensuring compliance with relevant regulations and standards. Principled performance is about achieving success while maintaining high standards of integrity and responsibility.


Reference:

OCEG (Open Compliance and Ethics Group) Red Book GRC Capability Model ISO 37001:2016 - Anti-bribery management systems



Which disciplines are integrated into GRC?

  1. Audit and Assurance
  2. Governance and Oversight
  3. Strategy and Performance Management
  4. Quality and Conformance
  5. Information Privacy and Security
  6. Compliance and Ethics
  7. Risk and Decision Support
  8. All of these disciplines are integrated into GRC

Answer(s): H

Explanation:

GRC (Governance, Risk, and Compliance) integrates multiple disciplines to create a cohesive approach to managing an organization's overall governance, risk management, and compliance with regulations. The integrated disciplines include:

Audit and Assurance: Ensuring internal controls are effective and compliance with laws and policies. Governance and Oversight: Establishing frameworks and policies to guide the organization. Strategy and Performance Management: Aligning risk management and compliance with strategic objectives.
Quality and Conformance: Ensuring products/services meet regulatory and customer standards. Information Privacy and Security: Protecting sensitive data and ensuring information security. Compliance and Ethics: Adhering to legal requirements and promoting ethical behavior. Risk and Decision Support: Identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks to support decision-making. The integration of these disciplines ensures a comprehensive approach to managing risks and achieving organizational objectives.


Reference:

OCEG GRC Capability Model (Red Book)
ISO 31000:2018 - Risk management ­ Guidelines
COSO Enterprise Risk Management ­ Integrating with Strategy and Performance



Which one of these is most associated with a "measure of how well we are addressing opportunities"

  1. Compliance
  2. Performance
  3. Risk

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Performance is most associated with a "measure of how well we are addressing opportunities." Performance management focuses on setting goals, monitoring progress, and evaluating outcomes to ensure that an organization is effectively taking advantage of opportunities to achieve its objectives. It involves measuring and managing activities that lead to improved efficiency, effectiveness, and innovation. By addressing opportunities, organizations can enhance their performance and create value.


Reference:

ISO 9001:2015 - Quality management systems ­ Requirements Balanced Scorecard Institute - Performance Management Framework



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A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

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L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

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V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

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S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

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P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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T
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10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

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E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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O
OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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A
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3/17/2025 11:08:37 AM

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