NCLEX National Council Licensure Examination - -RN NCLEX-RN Exam Questions in PDF

Free NCLEX NCLEX-RN Dumps Questions (page: 7)

When evaluating a client with symptoms of shock, it is important for the nurse to differentiate between neurogenic and hypovolemic shock. The symptoms of neurogenic shock differ from hypovolemic shock in that:

  1. In neurogenic shock, the skin is warm and dry
  2. In hypovolemic shock, there is a bradycardia
  3. In hypovolemic shock, capillary refill is less than 2 seconds
  4. In neurogenic shock, there is delayed capillary refill

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

(A) Neurogenic shock is caused by injury to the cervical region, which leads to loss of sympathetic control. This loss leads to vasodilation of the vascular beds, bradycardia resulting from the lack of sympathetic balance to parasympathetic stimuli from the vagus nerve, and the loss of the ability to sweat below the level of injury. In neurogenic shock, the client is hypotensive but bradycardiac with warm, dry skin. (B) In hypovolemic shock, the client ishypotensive and tachycardiac with cool skin. (C) In hypovolemic shock, the capillary refill would be>5 seconds. (D) In neurogenic shock, there is no capillary delay, the vascular beds are dilated, and peripheral flow is good.



When evaluating a client with symptoms of shock, it is important for the nurse to differentiate between neurogenic and hypovolemic shock. The symptoms of neurogenic shock differ from hypovolemic shock in that:

  1. In neurogenic shock, the skin is warm and dry
  2. In hypovolemic shock, there is a bradycardia
  3. In hypovolemic shock, capillary refill is less than 2 seconds
  4. In neurogenic shock, there is delayed capillary refill

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

(A) Neurogenic shock is caused by injury to the cervical region, which leads to loss of sympathetic control. This loss leads to vasodilation of the vascular beds, bradycardia resulting from the lack of sympathetic balance to parasympathetic stimuli from the vagus nerve, and the loss of the ability to sweat below the level of injury. In neurogenic shock, the client is hypotensive but bradycardiac with warm, dry skin. (B) In hypovolemic shock, the client ishypotensive and tachycardiac with cool skin. (C) In hypovolemic shock, the capillary refill would be>5 seconds. (D) In neurogenic shock, there is no capillary delay, the vascular beds are dilated, and peripheral flow is good.



The cardiac client who exhibits the symptoms of disorientation, lethargy, and seizures may be exhibiting a toxic reaction to:

  1. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
  2. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
  3. Quinidine gluconate or sulfate (Quinaglute,Quinidex)
  4. Nitroglycerin IV (Tridil)

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

(A) Side effects of digoxin include headache, hypotension, AV block, blurred vision, and yellow-green halos. (B) Side effects of lidocaine include heart block, headache, dizziness, confusion, tremor, lethargy, and convulsions. (C) Side effects of quinidine include heart block, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and respiratory depression. (D) Side effects of nitroglycerin include postural hypotension, headache, dizziness, and flushing.



The cardiac client who exhibits the symptoms of disorientation, lethargy, and seizures may be exhibiting a toxic reaction to:

  1. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
  2. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
  3. Quinidine gluconate or sulfate (Quinaglute,Quinidex)
  4. Nitroglycerin IV (Tridil)

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

(A) Side effects of digoxin include headache, hypotension, AV block, blurred vision, and yellow-green halos. (B) Side effects of lidocaine include heart block, headache, dizziness, confusion, tremor, lethargy, and convulsions. (C) Side effects of quinidine include heart block, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and respiratory depression. (D) Side effects of nitroglycerin include postural hypotension, headache, dizziness, and flushing.



A 3-year-old child is hospitalized with burns covering her trunk and lower extremities. Which of the following would the nurse use to assess adequacy of fluid resuscitation in the burned child?

  1. Blood pressure
  2. Serum potassium level
  3. Urine output
  4. Pulse rate

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

(A) Blood pressure can remain normotensive even in a state of hypovolemia. (B) Serum potassium is not reliable for determining adequacy of fluid resuscitation. (C) Urine output, alteration in sensorium, and capillary refill are the most reliable indicators for assessing adequacy of fluid resuscitation. (D) Pulse rate may vary for many reasons and is not a reliable indicator for assessing adequacy of fluid resuscitation.



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A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
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LRK
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