Medical Tests Certified Emergency Nurse CEN Exam Questions in PDF

Free Medical Tests CEN Dumps Questions (page: 1)

You are administering a Snellen chart test to a patient. What results would you expect to get if your patient was legally blind?

  1. 20/20 vision
  2. 20/40 vision
  3. 20/60 vision
  4. 20/200 vision

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The patient would be considered legally blind if the result of the Snellen chart test is 20/200 vision. This means that the patient is able to read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 200 feet. Legal blindness is defined as 20/200 or less with corrected vision or visual acuity of less than 20 degrees of the visual field in the better eye.



What is the normal intraocular pressure of the eye?

  1. 2 to 7 mm Hg
  2. 10 to 21 mm Hg
  3. 22 to 30 mm Hg
  4. 31 to 35 mm Hg

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The normal intraocular pressure of the eye is 10 to 21 mm Hg. The test used to measure intraocular pressure is called a tonometry. This is how glaucoma is diagnosed. A patient with glaucoma would have an intraocular pressure of 30 to 70 mm Hg.



Your patient has been diagnosed with a hyphema following hitting their head on the steering wheel during a car accident. What position would you want to place this patient in?

  1. Supine
  2. Semi- fowlers
  3. Lateral
  4. Trendelenburg

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The patient should be placed in semi-fowlers position on bed rest. A hyphema is caused by a force, such as hitting your head on the steering wheel, strong enough to break the blood vessels in the eye. Placing the patient in semi-fowlers position lets gravity work to keep the hyphema away from the optical center of the cornea.



Your patient has arrived in the emergency department with a penetrating eye injury. You are assessing the patient. What should your first action be?

  1. Remove any objects from the eye.
  2. Place a patch over the eye.
  3. Perform a visual acuity test.
  4. Use sterile saline to irrigate the eye.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

You would want to perform visual acuity tests on the affected eye first. This allows the nurse to assess any damage to the vision. Any foreign objects in the eye should only be removed by an ophthalmologist. Do not cover or rinse eye because it may dislodge foreign objects and cause further damage to the eye.



Your patient has arrived in the emergency department with a chemical eye injury. Your first action should be to:

  1. Perform a visual acuity test
  2. Use sterile saline to irrigate the eye
  3. Place antibiotic ointment in the eye
  4. Place a patch over the eye

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The first reaction by the nurse should be to irrigate the eye with normal saline. This should be done for at least 10 minutes to remove any chemicals from the eye. Following irrigation of the eye the patient should have visual acuity tests to determine the extent of damage to the eye.



You are caring for a patient who has come into the emergency department with a foreign body in his right ear. After further investigation you determine that the foreign object is an insect. What intervention would the physician order first for this client?

  1. Sterile normal saline irrigation
  2. Diluted alcohol irrigation
  3. Antibiotic ear drops
  4. Corticosteroids ointment

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The nurse would know that the physician will order diluted alcohol irrigation of the affected ear. This will suffocate the insect so it can be removed from the ear with forceps. If the foreign object were vegetable matter, irrigation would not be performed due to the enlargement of the object when it is hydrated, which would make the impaction worse.



When caring for a patient what sign would indicate that he might have a basal skull fracture?

  1. The auditory canal has purulent drainage.
  2. The auditory canal has bloody or clear drainage.
  3. Epistaxis
  4. Periorbital edema

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

A basal skull fracture would be indicated by bloody or clear drainage from the auditory canal. This indicates a cerebrospinal fluid leak from the fracture. This is a medical emergency and needs to be addressed by the physician immediately.



You are caring for a patient who complains of tinnitus. What part of the ear do you suspect is the most likely cause of the patient's complaint?

  1. External ear
  2. Middle ear
  3. Inner ear
  4. Auricle

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Tinnitus is the most common complaint of patients with disorders of the inner ear. Tinnitus is a ringing in the ear that can be loud intolerable ringing or mild ringing that can be unnoticed during the day.



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AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

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Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

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Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

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Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

i need to pass exam for VMware 2V0-11.25

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

great dumps to practice for the exam

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