Juniper Cloud, Associate JN0-214 Dumps in PDF

Free Juniper JN0-214 Real Questions (page: 8)

What are the two characteristics of the Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) framework? (Choose two.)

A It implements virtualized tunnel endpoints

  1. It decouples the network software from the hardware.
  2. It implements virtualized network functions
  3. It decouples the network control plane from the forwarding plane.

Answer(s): B,C

Explanation:

Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) is a framework designed to virtualize network services traditionally run on proprietary hardware. NFV aims to reduce costs, improve scalability, and increase flexibility by decoupling network functions from dedicated hardware appliances. Let's analyze each statement:

A . It implements virtualized tunnel endpoints.

Incorrect: While NFV can support virtualized tunnel endpoints (e.g., VXLAN gateways), this is not a defining characteristic of the NFV framework. Tunneling protocols are typically associated with SDN or overlay networks rather than NFV itself.

B . It decouples the network software from the hardware.

Correct: One of the primary goals of NFV is to separate network functions (e.g., firewalls, load balancers, routers) from proprietary hardware. Instead, these functions are implemented as software running on standard servers or virtual machines.

C . It implements virtualized network functions.

Correct: NFV replaces traditional hardware-based network appliances with virtualized network functions (VNFs). Examples include virtual firewalls, virtual routers, and virtual load balancers. These VNFs run on commodity hardware and are managed through orchestration platforms.

D . It decouples the network control plane from the forwarding plane.

Incorrect: Decoupling the control plane from the forwarding plane is a characteristic of Software- Defined Networking (SDN), not NFV.
While NFV and SDN are complementary technologies, they serve different purposes. NFV focuses on virtualizing network functions, while SDN focuses on programmable network control.


Reference:

The JNCIA-Cloud certification covers NFV as part of its discussion on cloud architectures and virtualization. NFV is particularly relevant in modern cloud environments because it enables flexible and scalable deployment of network services without reliance on specialized hardware.

For example, Juniper Contrail integrates with NFV frameworks to deploy and manage VNFs, enabling service providers to deliver network services efficiently and cost-effectively.


ETSI NFV Framework Documentation

Juniper JNCIA-Cloud Study Guide: Network Functions Virtualization



What is the name of the Docker container runtime?

  1. docker_cli
  2. containerd
  3. dockerd
  4. cri-o

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Docker is a popular containerization platform that relies on a container runtime to manage the lifecycle of containers. The container runtime is responsible for tasks such as creating, starting, stopping, and managing containers. Let's analyze each option:

A . docker_cli

Incorrect: The Docker CLI (Command Line Interface) is a tool used to interact with the Docker daemon (dockerd). It is not a container runtime but rather a user interface for managing Docker containers.

B . containerd

Correct: containerd is the default container runtime used by Docker. It is a lightweight, industry- standard runtime that handles low-level container management tasks, such as image transfer, container execution, and lifecycle management. Docker delegates these tasks to containerd through the Docker daemon.

C . dockerd

Incorrect: dockerd is the Docker daemon, which manages Docker objects such as images, containers, networks, and volumes.
While dockerd interacts with the container runtime, it is not the runtime itself.

D . cri-o

Incorrect: cri-o is an alternative container runtime designed specifically for Kubernetes. It implements the Kubernetes Container Runtime Interface (CRI) and is not used by Docker.

Why containerd?

Industry Standard: containerd is a widely adopted container runtime that adheres to the Open Container Initiative (OCI) standards.

Integration with Docker: Docker uses containerd as its default runtime, making it the correct answer in this context.


Reference:

The JNCIA-Cloud certification emphasizes understanding containerization technologies and their components. Docker and its runtime (containerd) are foundational tools in modern cloud environments, enabling lightweight, portable, and scalable application deployment.

For example, Juniper Contrail integrates with container orchestration platforms like Kubernetes, which often use containerd as the underlying runtime. Understanding container runtimes is essential for managing containerized workloads in cloud environments.


Docker Documentation: Container Runtimes

Open Container Initiative (OCI) Standards

Juniper JNCIA-Cloud Study Guide: Containerization



Which command should you use to obtain low-level information about Docker objects?

  1. docker info <OBJECT_NAME>
  2. docker inspect <OBJECT_NAME>
  3. docker container <OBJECT_NAME>
  4. docker system <OBJECT_NAME>

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Docker provides various commands to manage and interact with Docker objects such as containers, images, networks, and volumes. To obtain low-level information about these objects, the docker inspect command is used. Let's analyze each option:

A . docker info <OBJECT_NAME>

Incorrect: The docker info command provides high-level information about the Docker daemon itself, such as the number of containers, images, and system-wide configurations. It does not provide detailed information about specific Docker objects.

B . docker inspect <OBJECT_NAME>

Correct: The docker inspect command retrieves low-level metadata and configuration details about Docker objects (e.g., containers, images, networks, volumes). This includes information such as IP addresses, mount points, environment variables, and network settings. It outputs the data in JSON format for easy parsing and analysis.

C . docker container <OBJECT_NAME>

Incorrect: The docker container command is a parent command for managing containers (e.g., docker container ls, docker container start). It does not directly provide low-level information about a specific container.

D . docker system <OBJECT_NAME>

Incorrect: The docker system command is used for system-wide operations, such as pruning unused resources (docker system prune) or viewing disk usage (docker system df). It does not provide low- level details about specific Docker objects.

Why docker inspect?

Detailed Metadata: docker inspect is specifically designed to retrieve comprehensive, low-level information about Docker objects.

Versatility: It works with multiple object types, including containers, images, networks, and volumes.


Reference:

The JNCIA-Cloud certification covers Docker as part of its containerization curriculum. Understanding how to use Docker commands like docker inspect is essential for managing and troubleshooting containerized applications in cloud environments.

For example, Juniper Contrail integrates with container orchestration platforms like Kubernetes, which rely on Docker for container management. Proficiency with Docker commands ensures effective operation and debugging of containerized workloads.


Docker Documentation: docker inspect Command

Juniper JNCIA-Cloud Study Guide: Containerization



Which command would you use to see which VMs are running on your KVM device?

  1. virt-install
  2. virsh net-list
  3. virsh list
  4. VBoxManage list runningvms

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

KVM (Kernel-based Virtual Machine) is a popular open-source virtualization technology that allows you to run virtual machines (VMs) on Linux systems. The virsh command-line tool is used to manage

KVM VMs. Let's analyze each option:

A . virt-install

Incorrect: The virt-install command is used to create and provision new virtual machines. It is not used to list running VMs.

B . virsh net-list

Incorrect: The virsh net-list command lists virtual networks configured in the KVM environment. It does not display information about running VMs.

C . virsh list

Correct: The virsh list command displays the status of virtual machines managed by the KVM hypervisor. By default, it shows only running VMs. You can use the --all flag to include stopped VMs in the output.

D . VBoxManage list runningvms

Incorrect: The VBoxManage command is used with Oracle VirtualBox, not KVM. It is unrelated to KVM virtualization.

Why virsh list?

Purpose-Built for KVM: virsh is the standard tool for managing KVM virtual machines, and virsh list is specifically designed to show the status of running VMs.

Simplicity: The command is straightforward and provides the required information without additional complexity.


Reference:

The JNCIA-Cloud certification emphasizes understanding virtualization technologies, including KVM. Managing virtual machines using tools like virsh is a fundamental skill for operating virtualized environments.

For example, Juniper Contrail supports integration with KVM hypervisors, enabling the deployment and management of virtualized network functions (VNFs). Proficiency with KVM tools ensures efficient management of virtualized infrastructure.


KVM Documentation: virsh Command

Juniper JNCIA-Cloud Study Guide: Virtualization



Which two statements about Kubernetes are correct? (Choose two.)

  1. Kubernetes is compatible with the container open container runtime.
  2. Kubernetes requires the Docker daemon to run Docker containers.
  3. A container is the smallest unit of computing that you can manage with Kubernetes.
  4. A Kubernetes cluster must contain at least one control plane node.

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

Kubernetes is an open-source container orchestration platform that automates the deployment, scaling, and management of containerized applications. Let's analyze each statement:

A . Kubernetes is compatible with the container open container runtime.

Correct: Kubernetes supports the Open Container Initiative (OCI) runtime standards, which ensure compatibility with various container runtimes like containerd, cri-o, and others. This flexibility allows Kubernetes to work with different container engines beyond just Docker.

B . Kubernetes requires the Docker daemon to run Docker containers.

Incorrect: While Kubernetes historically used Docker as its default container runtime, it no longer depends on the Docker daemon. Instead, Kubernetes uses the Container Runtime Interface (CRI) to interact with container runtimes like containerd or cri-o. Docker's runtime has been replaced by containerd in most modern Kubernetes deployments.

C . A container is the smallest unit of computing that you can manage with Kubernetes.

Correct: In Kubernetes, a container represents the smallest deployable unit of computing. Containers encapsulate application code, dependencies, and configurations. Kubernetes manages containers through higher-level abstractions like Pods, which are groups of one or more containers.

D . A Kubernetes cluster must contain at least one control plane node.

Incorrect: While a Kubernetes cluster typically requires at least one control plane node to manage the cluster, this statement is incomplete. A functional Kubernetes cluster also requires at least one worker node to run application workloads. Both control plane and worker nodes are essential for a fully operational cluster.

Why These Answers?

Compatibility with OCI Runtimes: Kubernetes' support for OCI-compliant runtimes ensures flexibility and avoids vendor lock-in.

Containers as Smallest Unit: Understanding that containers are the fundamental building blocks of Kubernetes is crucial for designing and managing applications in a Kubernetes environment.


Reference:

The JNCIA-Cloud certification covers Kubernetes as part of its container orchestration curriculum. Understanding Kubernetes architecture, compatibility, and core concepts is essential for deploying and managing containerized applications in cloud environments.

For example, Juniper Contrail integrates with Kubernetes to provide advanced networking and security features for containerized workloads. Proficiency with Kubernetes ensures seamless operation of cloud-native applications.


Kubernetes Documentation: Container Runtimes

Juniper JNCIA-Cloud Study Guide: Kubernetes



Share your comments for Juniper JN0-214 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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