Which of the following methods does the Java Servlet Specification v2.4 define in the HttpServletRequest interface that control programmatic security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
Answer(s): B,C,D
The various methods of the HttpServletRequest interface are as follows: getRemoteUser(): It returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. isUserInRole(): It determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. getUserPrincipal(): It determines the principle name of the current user and returns the javA.security.Principal object. The javA.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer A is incorrect. It is not defined in theHttpServletRequest interface. The getCallerIdentity() method is used to obtain the javA.security.Identity of the caller.
You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?
Answer(s): C
Of all the choices only this answer is accurate. The PMBOK clearly states that the data must be accurate and unbiased to be credible. Answer D is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data.
FIPS 199 defines the three levels of potential impact on organizations. Which of the following potential impact levels shows limited adverse effects on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals?
Answer(s): B
The potential impact is called low if the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability is expected to have a limited adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals. Answer C is incorrect. Such a type of potential impact level does not exist Answer A is incorrect. The potential impact is known to be moderate if the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability is expected to have a serious adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals. Answer D is incorrect. The potential impact is called high if the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability is expected to have a severe or catastrophic adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals.
You work as the senior project manager in SoftTech Inc. You are working on a software project using configuration management. Through configuration management you are decomposing the verification system into identifiable, understandable, manageable, traceable units that are known as Configuration Items (CIs). According to you, which of the following processes is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items?
Configuration identification is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer D is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Configuration control is a means of ensuring that system changes are approved before being implemented. Only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate. Answer A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. Answer C is incorrect. Configuration auditing is the quality assurance element of configuration management. It is occupied in the process of periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to validate that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.
Bill is the project manager of the JKH Project. He and the project team have identified a risk event in the project with a high probability of occurrence and the risk event has a high cost impact on the project. Bill discusses the risk event with Virginia, the primary project customer, and she decides that the requirements surrounding the risk event should be removed from the project. The removal of the requirements does affect the project scope, but it can release the project from the high risk exposure. What risk response has been enacted in this project?
Answer(s): D
This is an example of the avoidance risk response. Because the project plan has been changed to avoid the risk event, so it is considered the avoidance risk response. Risk avoidance is a technique used for threats. It creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk completely or to protect the project objectives from its impact. Risk avoidance removes the risk event entirely either by adding additional steps to avoid the event or reducing the project scope requirements. It may seem the answer to all possible risks, but avoiding risks also means losing out on the potential gains that accepting (retaining) the risk might have allowed. Answer C is incorrect. Acceptance is when the stakeholders acknowledge the risk event and they accept that the event could happen and could have an impact on the project. Acceptance is usually used for risk events that have low risk exposure or risk events in which the project has no control, such as a pending law or weather threats. Answer A is incorrect. Mitigation is involved with the actions to reduce an included risk's probability and/or impact on the project's objectives. As the risk was removed from the project, this scenario describes avoidance, not mitigation. Answer B is incorrect. Transference is when the risk is still within the project, but the ownership and management of the risk event is transferred to a third party - usually for a fee.
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Question 1:
Question 5:
Why this is correct
Question 7:
Question 104:
clustering keys
Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})
Question 62:
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Question 32:
Question 3:
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Question 528:
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Question 2:For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP. From the options:
Question 129:Correct answer: CNAME
compute.osAdminLogin
enable-oslogin
Question 2:
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