ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control CRISC Exam Questions in PDF

Free ISACA CRISC Dumps Questions (page: 37)

Which of the following individuals is responsible for identifying process requirements, approving process design and managing process performance?

  1. Business process owner
  2. Risk owner
  3. Chief financial officer
  4. Chief information officer

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Business process owners are the individuals responsible for identifying process requirements, approving process design and managing process performance. In general, a business process owner must be at an appropriately high level in the enterprise and have authority to commit resources to process-specific risk management activities.

Incorrect Answers:
B: Risk owner for each risk should be the person who has the most influence over its outcome. Selecting the risk owner thus usually involves considering the source of risk and identifying the person who is best placed to understand and implement what needs to be done.

C: Chief financial officer is the most senior official of the enterprise who is accountable for financial planning, record keeping, investor relations and financial risks.

D: Chief information officer is the most senior official of the enterprise who is accountable for IT advocacy; aligning IT and business strategies; and planning, resourcing and managing the delivery of IT services and information and the deployment of associated human resources.



Which of the following should be considered to ensure that risk responses that are adopted are cost-effective and are aligned with business objectives?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.

  1. Identify the risk in business terms
  2. Recognize the business risk appetite
  3. Adopt only pre-defined risk responses of business
  4. Follow an integrated approach in business

Answer(s): A,B,D

Explanation:

Risk responses require a formal approach to issues, opportunities and events to ensure that solutions are cost- effective and are aligned with business objectives. The following should be considered:
While preparing the risk response, identify the risk in business terms like loss of productivity, disclosure of confidential information, lost opportunity costs, etc.
Recognize the business risk appetite. Follow an integrated approach in business.

Risk responses requiring an investment should be supported by a carefully planned business case that justifies the expenditure outlines alternatives and describes the justification for the alternative selected.

Incorrect Answers:
C: There is no such requirement to follow the pre-defined risk responses. If some new risk responses are discovered during the risk management of a particular project, they should be noted down in lesson leaned document so that project manager working on some other project could also utilize them.



Walter is the project manager of a large construction project. He'll be working with several vendors on the project. Vendors will be providing materials and labor for several parts of the project. Some of the works in the project are very dangerous so Walter has implemented safety requirements for all of the vendors and his own project team. Stakeholders for the project have added new requirements, which have caused new risks in the project. A vendor has identified a new risk that could affect the project if it comes into fruition. Walter agrees with the vendor and has updated the risk register and created potential risk responses to mitigate the risk. What should Walter also update in this scenario considering the risk event?

  1. Project management plan
  2. Project communications plan
  3. Project contractual relationship with the vendor
  4. Project scope statement

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

When new risks are identified as part of the scope additions, Walter should update the risk register and the project management plan to reflect the responses to the risk event.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The project communications management plan may be updated if there's a communication need but the related to the risk event, not the communication of the risks.

C: The contractual relationship won't change with the vendor as far as project risks are concerned. D: The project scope statement is changed as part of the scope approval that has already happened.



What are the three PRIMARY steps to be taken to initialize the project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

  1. Conduct a feasibility study
  2. Define requirements
  3. Acquire software
  4. Plan risk management

Answer(s): A,B,C

Explanation:

Projects are initiated by sponsors who gather the information required to gain approval for the project to be created. Information often compiled into the terms of a project charter includes the objective of the project, business case and problem statement, stakeholders in the system to be produced, and project manager and sponsor.

Following are the steps to initiate the project:
Conduct a feasibility study: Feasibility study starts once initial approval has been given to move forward with a project, and includes an analysis to clearly define the need and to identify alternatives for addressing the need. A feasibility study involves:
- Analyzing the benefits and solutions for the identified problem area
- Development of a business case that states the strategic benefits of implementing the system either in productivity gains or in future cost avoidance and identifies and quantifies the cost savings of the new system.
- Estimation of a payback schedule for the cost incurred in implementing the system or shows the projected return on investment (ROI)
Define requirements: Requirements include:
- Business requirements containing descriptions of what a system should do
- Functional requirements and use case models describing how users will interact with a system
- Technical requirements and design specifications and coding specifications describing how the system will interact, conditions under which the system will operate and the information criteria the system should meet.
Acquire software: Acquiring software involves building new or modifying existing hardware or software after final approval by the stakeholder, which is not a phase in the standard SDLC process. If a decision was reached to acquire rather than develop software, this task should occur after defining requirements.

Incorrect Answers:
D: Risk management is planned latter in project development process, and not during initialization.



You are the risk official in Techmart Inc. You are asked to perform risk assessment on the impact of losing a network connectivity for 1 day. Which of the following factors would you include?

  1. Aggregate compensation of all affected business users.
  2. Hourly billing rate charged by the carrier
  3. Value that enterprise get on transferring data over the network
  4. Financial losses incurred by affected business units

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The impact of network unavailability is the cost it incurs to the enterprise. As the network is unavailable for 1 day, it can be considered as the failure of some business units that rely on this network. Hence financial losses incurred by this affected business unit should be considered.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: These factors in combination contribute to the overall financial impact, i.e., financial losses incurred by affected business units.



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AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

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Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

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Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

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Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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Adekunle willaims
6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

How reliable and relevant are these questions?? also i can see the last update here was January and definitely new questions would have emerged.

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