IBM Cloud Professional Architect v6 C1000-172 Dumps in PDF

Free IBM C1000-172 Real Questions (page: 2)

Which IBM Cloud database service supports both relational and non-relational data querying?

  1. Databases for Redis
  2. Databases for Db2
  3. Databases for PostgreSQL
  4. Databases for etcd

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Databases for Db2 is an IBM Cloud database service that supports both relational and non-relational data querying.

IBM Cloud Databases for Db2: Db2 on IBM Cloud is a managed database service that supports both relational and non-relational models. It provides JSON and SQL querying capabilities, allowing users to store and retrieve data in a flexible manner. This makes it capable of handling structured, semi- structured, and unstructured data, thus supporting both relational and non-relational data formats.

Support for Multiple Data Types: Db2's multi-model database capabilities enable the execution of SQL queries on relational data and the storage/retrieval of JSON documents, effectively allowing it to function in both relational and non-relational scenarios.

Reference from IBM Cloud Professional Architect Materials:

According to IBM's documentation on IBM Cloud Databases for Db2, it supports a broad range of workloads and use cases, including transactional (relational) and operational (non-relational) workloads, making it suitable for both SQL and NoSQL data models.

The other options are incorrect because:

A . Databases for Redis is a key-value store optimized for in-memory data.

C . Databases for PostgreSQL is strictly a relational database.

D . Databases for etcd is a key-value store primarily used for configuration management.



What is the main advantage of using IBM Code Engine over traditional server provisioning?

  1. Lower latency
  2. Better load balancing
  3. Higher security
  4. Greater scalability

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The main advantage of using IBM Code Engine over traditional server provisioning is greater scalability.

IBM Code Engine: It is a fully managed, serverless platform that automatically scales up or down based on the workload demand. Unlike traditional server provisioning, which requires manual configuration and scaling of resources, IBM Code Engine dynamically adjusts the compute capacity, allowing applications to handle variable loads efficiently.

Scalability Advantage: IBM Code Engine's serverless architecture eliminates the need for pre- provisioning servers, thus avoiding over-provisioning or under-provisioning issues. It can automatically scale from zero to thousands of instances based on demand, making it highly efficient for scaling applications.

Reference from IBM Cloud Professional Architect Materials:

According to IBM documentation on IBM Code Engine, it provides a serverless experience with automatic scaling, where the platform handles all the provisioning, scaling, and management of resources.

The other options are incorrect:

A . Lower latency may be a benefit, but it's not the main advantage.

B . Better load balancing is part of scalability but not the primary advantage over traditional provisioning.

C . Higher security could be a benefit but isn't specific to IBM Code Engine's main advantage over server provisioning.



What is used to configure virtual server instances (VSIs) with user data?

  1. cloud-init
  2. cloud-config
  3. server-config
  4. user-data

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

cloud-init is a widely used tool in IBM Cloud for initializing virtual server instances (VSIs) with user data. It allows users to provide configuration instructions or scripts that are executed when a new virtual server is created. cloud-init is highly versatile and supports a variety of use cases, such as installing software packages, setting up the environment, and managing users.

What is cloud-init? It is a standard method for cloud instance initialization in many cloud environments, including IBM Cloud. cloud-init reads the user data provided during the instance's launch and executes the required configurations, allowing for automated setup and customization.

Why use cloud-init? It enables users to automate the bootstrapping process of virtual servers by defining configurations that can range from simple commands to complex scripts. This reduces manual intervention, saves time, and ensures consistency in server setups.

Relationship with Other Options:

cloud-config (B) is a YAML file format used by cloud-init for providing configuration details. However, the term cloud-init refers to the actual tool used to process the user data.

server-config (C) and user-data (D) are not specific tools but terms that might describe parts of the cloud-init process.


Reference:

IBM Cloud Virtual Servers Documentation

IBM Cloud Architect Exam Study Guide cloud-init Official Documentation



An IT manager is considering using IBM Key Protect for their organization's data encryption needs.
What is the primary objective of IBM Key Protect?

  1. Key management system for data encryption
  2. Hardware security module for cloud servers
  3. Data analytics platform for IBM Cloud
  4. Cloud-based data storage solution

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

IBM Key Protect is a cloud-based key management service that allows organizations to manage encryption keys used to protect their data across IBM Cloud services. The primary objective of IBM Key Protect is to securely generate, store, manage, and use cryptographic keys to protect sensitive data.

Key Management System: IBM Key Protect provides lifecycle management for keys, including creating, rotating, importing, and deleting keys. This service integrates with various IBM Cloud services to enable secure data encryption and protect data at rest and in transit.

Use Cases: It is designed for organizations that need to ensure compliance with data security regulations and protect their data using industry-standard encryption practices. It provides a centralized key management solution for cloud-native applications and workloads.

Comparison with Other Options:

Hardware security module (B) is a different type of secure key storage, which can be used alongside

IBM Key Protect but is not its primary function.

Data analytics platform (C) and Cloud-based data storage solution (D) are unrelated to key management and encryption.


Reference:

IBM Key Protect Documentation

IBM Cloud Architect Exam Study Guide

IBM Cloud Security Services



Which high availability strategy will result in a maximum of 4 nines (99.99%) of availability for an IBM Kubernetes Services cluster?

  1. A single worker node in a single availability zone in a single region
  2. Multiple worker nodes in a single availability zone in a single region
  3. Multiple worker nodes in at least three availability zones in two or more regions
  4. Multiple worker nodes in at least three availability zones in a single region

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

To achieve a high availability strategy with a target of four nines (99.99%) for an IBM Kubernetes Services cluster, you need to deploy multiple worker nodes across at least three availability zones within a single region. This configuration ensures that even if one or two zones experience failures, the cluster remains operational, thus meeting the 99.99% uptime objective.

High Availability in IBM Cloud Kubernetes Service: Deploying worker nodes across multiple availability zones provides redundancy and fault tolerance. By having at least three zones, the Kubernetes cluster can tolerate failures in up to two zones while still maintaining functionality.

Comparison of Options:

A (Single worker node in a single zone): Insufficient for high availability as any zone failure would result in downtime.

B (Multiple nodes in a single zone): Provides redundancy but still vulnerable to zone-wide outages, not meeting 99.99% uptime.

C (Multiple nodes in at least three zones across multiple regions): While this offers high availability, it exceeds the requirements stated for achieving 99.99% within a single region.


Reference:

IBM Kubernetes Service Documentation

IBM Cloud High Availability Best Practices

IBM Cloud Architect Exam Study Guide



Share your comments for IBM C1000-172 exam with other users:

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
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4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

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R
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V
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J
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N
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A
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S
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K
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