EMC Unity Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers E20-393 Exam Questions in PDF

Free EMC E20-393 Dumps Questions (page: 1)

A storage administrator has requested a recommendation on upgrading their VNX5600 to a comparable Unity storage array. The solution requires a maximum capacity of 3.5 PB.

To meet the administrator's requirement without over provisioning the capacity, which Unity Hybrid storage array is recommended?

  1. Unity 300
  2. Unity 400
  3. Unity 500
  4. Unity 600

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Unity 600 delivers 1.2 TB to 3.0 PB max raw capacity.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Unity 300 delivers 3.6 TB to 900 TB max raw capacity B: Unity 400 delivers 1.2 PB to 1.5 PB max raw capacity C: Unity 500 delivers 1.2 TB to 2.1 PB max raw capacity


Reference:

https://store.emc.com/us/Product-Family/EMC-Unity-Products/EMC-Unity-600-Hybrid-Flash-Storage/p/EMC-Unity-600-Hybrid-Storage



What is the minimum VMware Hypervisor version a server must be running in order to support the deployment of a UnityVSA system?

  1. 4.0
  2. 5.0
  3. 5.5
  4. 6.0

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

UnityVSA requirements include: VMWare ESXi 5.x, 6.x


Reference:

http://sweden.emc.com/products-solutions/trial-software-download/unity-vsa.htm



Which feature is supported on a UnityVSA operating environment?

  1. Asynchronous Replication
  2. MCC Write Caching
  3. Quick Start Pool Provisioning
  4. Data at Rest Encryption

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Asynchronous Unified Replication is available natively on UnityVSA. This allows file and block resources to be replicated between UnityVSA systems, between UnityVSA and physical Unity systems, and also locally back to the same UnityVSA system



A storage administrator is creating a host profile in Unisphere to provide host access to block storage resources using the iSCSI protocol. The host initiators were not automatically discovered and must be manually added.

In addition to the SAN host IQN, what other configuration can be performed through the "Create iSCSI Initiator Wizard" window?

  1. Enable and disable CHAP settings
  2. Create Mutual CHAP secret
  3. Create Global CHAP secret
  4. Enter CHAP username and secret

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A sample from a Broadcomm BIOS is provided in the figure below, illustrating the IQN assignment for the VNX iSCSI target.


Reference:

https://www.emc.com/collateral/hardware/technical-documentation/h8229-vnx-vmware-tb.pdf (page 34)



A storage administrator is configuring a storage pool on a Unity system containing Flash disks and SAS disks. What tier will the system assign to each of the disk types?

  1. Flash: Extreme Performance
    SAS: Performance
  2. Flash: Performance
    SAS: Capacity
  3. Flash: Extreme Performance
    SAS: Capacity
  4. Flash: Capacity
    SAS: Performance

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Hybrid pools can have up to 3 tiers (Extreme Performance, Performance, and Capacity). For the Extreme Performance tier, use only SAS Flashdrives.
For the Capacity tier, use only SAS drives.



Share your comments for EMC E20-393 exam with other users:

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
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4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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A
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L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

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V
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3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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N
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A
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S
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K
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9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

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E
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7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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