EC-Council Certified Ethical Hacker v13 312-50v13 Dumps in PDF

Free EC-Council 312-50v13 Real Questions (page: 4)

Bob, an attacker, has managed to access a target IoT device. He employed an online tool to gather information related to the model of the IoT device and the certifications granted to it.
Which of the following tools did Bob employ to gather the above information?

  1. FCC ID search
  2. Google image search
  3. search.com
  4. EarthExplorer

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A is correct because the FCC ID search tool provides detailed information on the models of IoT devices as well as their certifications.
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) assigns unique identification numbers (FCC IDs) to devices that communicate over radio frequencies.
When an attacker or security researcher inputs the FCC ID of an IoT device into the FCC database, they can access technical specifications, design documents, and compliance reports, all of which are crucial for understanding the device's model and certifications.
Evaluation of Other Options:
B: Google image search : While this tool can assist in reverse image searches or finding related visual data, it does not provide specific or technical information regarding device models or regulatory certifications. Therefore, its utility in gathering detailed certification information is limited.
C: search.com : This platform aggregates various types of content but does not specifically cater to the regulatory or technical details of electronic devices like an FCC ID search does. As such, it lacks the specificity required for identifying IoT device models or their certification status.
D: EarthExplorer : This tool is designed for accessing satellite imagery and geospatial data rather than for telecommunications devices. It is unrelated to the inquiry about IoT device models and certifications, rendering it inappropriate for Bob’s intended information gathering.
References:
1. https://www.fcc.gov/oet/ea/fccid 2. https://www.fcc.gov/document/fcc-id-where-do-i-find-it 3. https://www.nist.gov/itl/expertise/electromagnetic-compatibility-standards-technology


Reference:

References:
1. https://www.fcc.gov/oet/ea/fccid 2. https://www.fcc.gov/document/fcc-id-where-do-i-find-it 3. https://www.nist.gov/itl/expertise/electromagnetic-compatibility-standards-technology



What piece of hardware on a computer’s motherboard generates encryption keys and only releases a part of the key so that decrypting a disk on a new piece of hardware is not possible?

  1. CPU
  2. UEFI
  3. GPU
  4. TPM

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

D is correct because the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) securely generates and stores encryption keys, enabling hardware-based protection for sensitive data.
The TPM is specifically designed to provide robust security features like key generation and management, ensuring that decryption keys remain protected within the hardware itself.
When encryption is applied to disks, only parts of the keys are released for system operations, effectively preventing unauthorized access, particularly when the hardware is changed. This functionality is vital for maintaining data integrity and confidentiality, allowing secure operations even in potentially insecure environments.
Evaluation of Other Options:

A: CPU : While the CPU performs cryptographic computations and may generate keys, it lacks the physical security features inherent in a TPM, which isolates the keys and protects them from extraction or tampering. CPUs do not inherently manage sensitive key access in a secure manner nor do they provide the same level of hardware-bound security.
B: UEFI : The Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) offers initial boot security through secure boot mechanisms but does not generate or manage encryption keys.
While it can verify software and protect against boot-level malware, it relies on TPM for robust key protection and management.
C: GPU : Although a Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) may accelerate cryptographic operations, it is not designed for managing or securely storing encryption keys. The lack of intrinsic hardware isolation mechanisms makes it unsuitable for this role when compared to a TPM.
References:
https://trustedcomputinggroup.org/resource/trusted-platform-module-tpm-overview/ https://www.intel.com/content/www/us/en/security-center/solutions/tpm.html https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/security/trusted-platform-module-security


Reference:

References:
https://trustedcomputinggroup.org/resource/trusted-platform-module-tpm-overview/ https://www.intel.com/content/www/us/en/security-center/solutions/tpm.html https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/security/trusted-platform-module-security



Gilbert, a web developer, uses a centralized web API to reduce complexity and increase the integrity of updating and changing data. For this purpose, he uses a web service that uses HTTP methods such as PUT, POST, GET, and DELETE and can improve the overall performance, visibility, scalability, reliability, and portability of an application.
What is the type of web-service API mentioned in the above scenario?

  1. RESTful API
  2. JSON-RPC
  3. SOAP API
  4. REST API

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A: RESTful API is correct because it utilizes standard HTTP methods (GET, POST, PUT, DELETE) to interact with resources, aligning with the functionality described.
RESTful APIs are designed around the principles of Representational State Transfer (REST), which emphasizes stateless communication and resource-oriented architecture. This approach enhances scalability and performance by allowing multiple clients to interact with a centralized server efficiently. The ability to leverage various HTTP methods for different operations results in a clear, consistent interface for data interactions, which effectively simplifies development and maintenance. Moreover, REST APIs often return data in lightweight formats such as JSON or XML, enhancing portability and ease of integration across diverse platforms.
Critical Evaluation of Other Options:
B: JSON-RPC is a protocol that uses JSON to encode its calls and responses. Unlike REST, it doesn't inherently leverage HTTP methods; rather, it relies on a single POST method for all requests, which limits the expressiveness and clarity in resource manipulation.
C: SOAP API employs a protocol that relies on XML and is tightly coupled with extensive standards such as WS-Security and WS-ReliableMessaging. This creates a more complex environment that is generally heavier and less efficient than REST, especially for web services that require agility and speed.
D: REST API is a valid term; however, "RESTful API" is more accurate in this context as it specifically denotes adherence to REST principles, ensuring clarity in the focus on stateless operations and resource management.
References:
https://restfulapi.net/ https://www.owasp.org/index.php/REST_Security_Cheat_Sheet https://www.ics.uci.edu/~fielding/pubs/dissertation/rest_arch_style.htm


Reference:

References:
https://restfulapi.net/ https://www.owasp.org/index.php/REST_Security_Cheat_Sheet https://www.ics.uci.edu/~fielding/pubs/dissertation/rest_arch_style.htm



To create a botnet, the attacker can use several techniques to scan vulnerable machines. The attacker first collects information about a large number of vulnerable machines to create a list. Subsequently, they infect the machines. The list is divided by assigning half of the list to the newly compromised machines. The scanning process runs simultaneously. This technique ensures the spreading and installation of malicious code in little time.
Which technique is discussed here?

  1. Subnet scanning technique
  2. Permutation scanning technique
  3. Hit-list scanning technique.
  4. Topological scanning technique

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

C is correct as the technique described is a "Hit-list scanning technique," where compromised machines are used to scan and infect additional targets rapidly.
The Hit-list scanning technique involves a centralized strategy where a comprehensive list of vulnerable machines is created beforehand. After an initial compromise, the attacker divides this list among the newly infected machines, allowing them to simultaneously scan and infect additional targets. This approach exponentially increases the rate of infection by leveraging the network capacity of the compromised machines, thereby minimizing the time required to establish a botnet. The coordinated effort ensures that multiple machines engage in the attack concurrently, amplifying the overall effectiveness.
Critical Evaluation of Incorrect Options:

A: Subnet Scanning Technique : This method focuses on identifying live hosts within a specific subnet.
While it can be part of the broader attack strategy, it does not encompass the division of tasks among multiple bots or infected machines, which is central to the Hit-list scanning technique.
B: Permutation Scanning Technique : This technique involves varying the patterns of IP addresses during the scanning process to evade detection.
While useful for stealth, it does not address the method of collaborating compromised machines to maximize infection spread in a swift manner.
D: Topological Scanning Technique : This involves understanding the network topology for targeted attacks. Similar to subnet scanning, it lacks the mechanism of distributing the scanning workload among compromised devices, which is critical for the rapid proliferation characteristic of Hit-list scanning.
References:
1. https://www.cio.com/article/243770/what-is-a-botnet.html 2. https://www.us-cert.cisa.gov/report/understanding-botnets 3. https://www.symantec.com/security-center/threat-report


Reference:

References:
1. https://www.cio.com/article/243770/what-is-a-botnet.html 2. https://www.us-cert.cisa.gov/report/understanding-botnets 3. https://www.symantec.com/security-center/threat-report



Nicolas just found a vulnerability on a public-facing system that is considered a zero-day vulnerability. He sent an email to the owner of the public system describing the problem and how the owner can protect themselves from that vulnerability. He also sent an email to Microsoft informing them of the problem that their systems are exposed to.
What type of hacker is Nicolas?

  1. Black hat
  2. White hat
  3. Gray hat
  4. Red hat

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

C is the correct answer because Nicolas demonstrates traits typical of a gray hat hacker, engaging in both ethical and potentially unethical activities.
Nicolas's actions reflect characteristics of gray hat hackers, who operate in a moral gray area.
While he identified a vulnerability—a scenario often exploited by black hat hackers—he took ethical steps by notifying the system owner and Microsoft, aiming to mitigate the risk, which aligns with white hat practices. This duality in behavior qualifies him as a gray hat hacker, as he did not seek authorization before probing the system's vulnerability.
Critical Evaluation of Other Options:

A: Black hat: This option is incorrect as black hat hackers exploit vulnerabilities for malicious purposes or personal gain. Nicolas does not exhibit any intention to misuse the vulnerability he discovered; instead, he seeks to inform stakeholders to enhance security.
B: White hat: While Nicolas exhibits ethical behavior in informing both the system owner and Microsoft, he initially engaged with a zero-day vulnerability without consent, which moves him away from the strictly ethical framework of white hat hackers who typically work under contracts or permissions.
D: Red hat: This designation typically refers to a faction of hackers who aggressively combat black hat threats, often using similar illicit means. Nicolas's intent was to inform and protect rather than retaliate or engage in direct confrontation with other hackers; thus, he does not fit the criteria.
In conclusion, Nicolas’s actions reflect a nuanced understanding of ethical hacking and responsibility, placing him squarely in the gray hat category.
References:
https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/security/glossary/what-is-a-gray-hat-hacker/ https://www.csoonline.com/article/3280658/what-is-a-gray-hat-hacker-and-how-do-they-operate.html https://www.varonis.com/blog/white-hat-black-hat-gray-hat-hackers


Reference:

References:
https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/security/glossary/what-is-a-gray-hat-hacker/ https://www.csoonline.com/article/3280658/what-is-a-gray-hat-hacker-and-how-do-they-operate.html https://www.varonis.com/blog/white-hat-black-hat-gray-hat-hackers



Sophia is a shopping enthusiast who spends significant time searching for trendy outfits online. Clark, an attacker, noticed her activities several times and sent a fake email containing a deceptive page link to her social media page displaying all-new and trendy outfits. In excitement, Sophia clicked on the malicious link and logged in to that page using her valid credentials.
Which of the following tools is employed by Clark to create the spoofed email?

  1. Evilginx
  2. Slowloris
  3. PLCinject
  4. PyLoris

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A is correct because Evilginx is a sophisticated phishing tool that intercepts credentials by leveraging reverse proxy techniques to simulate legitimate login pages.
Reasoning: Evilginx operates by creating a proxy between the victim and a legitimate service.
When a user like Sophia accesses the spoofed page, she unwittingly submits her credentials, which Evilginx captures. This tool's effectiveness lies in its capability to bypass traditional security measures, as it does not require installing malware on the victim’s device. The attacker can use this captured data to access sensitive information thereafter.
Evaluation of Alternatives:
B: Slowloris : This tool is primarily used for denial-of-service attacks by exploiting the way web servers handle connections, making it unsuitable for creating phishing emails. Its focus on resource exhaustion does not involve credential harvesting or email spoofing.
C: PLCinject : This is a tool designed for automating various types of attacks, particularly geared towards PLC systems in industrial environments. It lacks any mechanisms for email spoofing or credential theft through phishing methodologies.
D: PyLoris : Similar to Slowloris, PyLoris is a denial-of-service tool that queries web servers in a way that can exhaust resources. Like Slowloris, it does not facilitate phishing or credential capture, rendering it irrelevant in the context of email spoofing and credential theft.
References:
https://www.evilginx.com https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Phishing https://www.cyber.gov.au/acsc/view-all-content/advisories/evilontext-e-mail-phishing-techniques


Reference:

References:
https://www.evilginx.com https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Phishing https://www.cyber.gov.au/acsc/view-all-content/advisories/evilontext-e-mail-phishing-techniques



John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization. In the attack process, the professional hacker installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the victims and scanned several machines on the same network to identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation.
What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

  1. Agent-based scanner
  2. Network-based scanner
  3. Cluster scanner
  4. Proxy scanner

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

B is correct because a network-based scanner is designed to identify vulnerabilities across multiple machines within a network segment.
A network-based scanner assesses vulnerabilities by probing devices within a specific network environment, which aligns with the actions taken by John and the professional hacker in the scenario. This type of scanner can efficiently analyze numerous machines from a single point, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of the network's security posture.
Critical Evaluation of Other Options:

A: Agent-based scanner : This type of scanner requires individual installation on each target device, which is infeasible in this scenario where vulnerabilities are assessed across multiple machines remotely. The context indicates scanning without direct installation on each target, ruling this option out.
C: Cluster scanner : Cluster scanners typically focus on managing and scanning multiple devices as part of a larger data center or cluster environment, which does not pertain to the scenario's focus on general network vulnerabilities. The absence of a clustered environment negates this option.
D: Proxy scanner : A proxy scanner operates using an intermediary to screen and analyze traffic flows between an internal network and external sources. The scenario does not indicate the utilization of a proxy methodology, where observation occurs from an independent point outside the target network.
In conclusion, the traits of a network-based scanner match the operational framework utilized by John in engaging an attack on the organization, making it the most appropriate answer.
References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/network-based-scanners/overview.html https://www.tenable.com/products/tenable-io/what-is-vulnerability-assessment https://www.imperva.com/learn/data-security/vulnerability-assessment-tools/


Reference:

References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/network-based-scanners/overview.html https://www.tenable.com/products/tenable-io/what-is-vulnerability-assessment https://www.imperva.com/learn/data-security/vulnerability-assessment-tools/



Joel, a professional hacker, targeted a company and identified the types of websites frequently visited by its employees. Using this information, he searched for possible loopholes in these websites and injected a malicious script that can redirect users from the web page and download malware onto a victim's machine. Joel waits for the victim to access the infected web application so as to compromise the victim's machine.
Which of the following techniques is used by Joel in the above scenario?

  1. Watering hole attack
  2. DNS rebinding attack
  3. MarioNet attack
  4. Clickjacking attack

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A: Watering hole attack is the correct answer as it describes Joel's method of compromising a targeted group's users by infecting frequently visited websites.
This technique entails monitoring a specific group to identify common online behaviors, then exploiting those platforms to deliver malicious payloads to unsuspecting users. Joel's actions demonstrate a calculated approach, targeting the company by injecting malicious scripts into websites its employees are known to visit. Once an employee accesses the compromised site, the script executes, leading to malware being downloaded onto their machine, thereby fulfilling the malicious objective of the attacker.
Evaluation of Incorrect Options:
B: DNS rebinding attack: This technique involves manipulating DNS responses to gain access to internal resources, typically through a local network. Joel's strategy does not entail altering DNS behavior but focuses on website exploitation to deliver malware.
C: MarioNet attack: This method relates to controlling a network of compromised machines post-infection through a framework. In contrast, Joel's actions revolve around exploiting specific websites rather than establishing a command structure over machines.
D: Clickjacking attack: This is a user-interface manipulation that tricks users into clicking on hidden links or buttons.
While it involves deception, it does not describe Joel's method of directly compromising website content to deliver a payload to the victim’s machine.
References:
1. https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Watering_Hole_Attack 2. https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/watering-hole-attack/ 3. https://www.csoonline.com/article/3258232/what-is-a-watering-hole-attack-and-how-it-works.html


Reference:

References:
1. https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Watering_Hole_Attack 2. https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/watering-hole-attack/ 3. https://www.csoonline.com/article/3258232/what-is-a-watering-hole-attack-and-how-it-works.html



Share your comments for EC-Council 312-50v13 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!