EC-Council Network Defense Essentials 112-51 Dumps in PDF

Free EC-Council 112-51 Real Questions (page: 4)

Below are the various steps involved in the creation of a data retention policy. 1.Understand and determine the applicable legal requirements of the organization

2.Ensure that all employees understand the organization's data retention policy 3.Build a data retention policy development team
4.ldentify and classify the data to be included in the data retention policy 5.Develop the data retention policy
Identify the correct sequence of steps involved.

  1. 3 -- >2 -- >5 -- >4 -- >1
  2. 3 -- >1 -- >4 -- >5 -- >2
  3. 1 -- >3 -- >4 -- >2 -- >5
  4. 1 -- >5 -- >4 -- >2 -- >3

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The correct sequence of steps involved in the creation of a data retention policy is 3 -> 1 -> 4 -> 5 ->
2. This is based on the following description of the data retention policy creation process from the web search results:
Build a team: To design a data retention policy, you need a team of industry experts, such as legal, IT, compliance, and business representatives, who can contribute their knowledge and perspectives to the policy. The team should have a clear leader who can coordinate the tasks and communicate the goals and expectations1.
Determine legal requirements: The team should research and understand the applicable legal and regulatory requirements for data retention that affect the organization, such as GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS, etc. The team should also consider any contractual obligations or industry standards that may influence the data retention policy2134.
Identify and classify the data: The team should inventory and categorize all the data that the organization collects, stores, and processes, based on their function, subject, or type. The team should also assess the value, risk, and sensitivity of each data category, and determine the appropriate retention period, format, and location for each data category2134. Develop the data retention policy: The team should draft the data retention policy document that outlines the purpose, scope, roles, responsibilities, procedures, and exceptions of the data retention policy. The policy should be clear, concise, and consistent, and should reflect the legal and business requirements of the organization. The policy should also include a data retention schedule that specifies the retention period and disposition method for each data category2134. Ensure that all employees understand the organization's data retention policy: The team should communicate and distribute the data retention policy to all the relevant employees and stakeholders, and provide training and guidance on how to comply with the policy. The team should also monitor and enforce the policy, and review and update the policy regularly to reflect any changes in the legal or business environment2134.


Reference:

How to Create a Data Retention Policy | Smartsheet, Smartsheet, July 17, 2019 What Is a Data Retention Policy? Best Practices + Template, Drata, November 29, 2023 Data Retention Policy: What It Is and How to Create One - SpinOne, SpinOne, 2020 How to Develop and Implement a Retention Policy - SecureScan, SecureScan, 2020



Cibel.org, an organization, wanted to develop a web application for marketing its products to the public. In this process, they consulted a cloud service provider and requested provision of development tools, configuration management, and deployment platforms for developing customized applications.
Identify the type of cloud service requested by Cibel.org in the above scenario.

  1. Security-as-a-service (SECaaS)
  2. Platform-as-a-service
  3. Infrastructure-as-a-service {laaS)
  4. ldentity-as-a-service {IDaaS)

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The type of cloud

The type of cloud service requested by Cibel.org in the above scenario is Platform-as-a-service (PaaS). PaaS is a cloud-based service that delivers a range of developer tools and deployment capabilities. PaaS provides a complete, ready-to-use, cloud-hosted platform for developing, running, maintaining and managing applications. PaaS customers do not need to install, configure, or manage the underlying infrastructure, such as servers, storage, network, or operating system. Instead, they can focus on the application development and deployment process, using the tools and services provided by the cloud service provider. PaaS solutions support cloud-native development technologies, such as microservices, containers, Kubernetes, serverless computing, that enable developers to build once, then deploy and manage consistently across private cloud, public cloud and on-premises environments. PaaS also offers features such as scalability, availability, security, backup, and monitoring for the applications. PaaS is suitable for organizations that want to develop customized applications without investing in or maintaining the infrastructure123.


Reference:

Network Defense Essentials Courseware, EC-Council, 2020, pp. 3-40 to 3-41 What is PaaS? A Beginner's Guide to Platform as a Service - G2, G2, February 19, 2020 Cloud Service Models Explained: SaaS, IaaS, PaaS, FaaS - Jelvix, Jelvix, July 14, 2020



Ben, a computer user, applied for a digital certificate. A component of PKI verifies Ben's identity using the credentials provided and passes that request on behalf of Ben to grant the digital certificate.
Which of the following PKI components verified Ben as being legitimate to receive the certificate?

  1. Certificate authority (CA)
  2. Registration authority {RA)
  3. Certificate directory
  4. Validation authority (VA)

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The PKI component that verified Ben as being legitimate to receive the certificate is the registration authority (RA). An RA is an entity that is responsible for identifying and authenticating certificate applicants, approving or rejecting certificate applications, and initiating certificate revocations or suspensions under certain circumstances. An RA acts as an intermediary between the certificate authority (CA) and the certificate applicant, and performs the necessary checks and validations before forwarding the request to the CA. The CA is the entity that signs and issues the certificates, and maintains the certificate directory and the certificate revocation list. A certificate directory is a repository of issued certificates that can be accessed by users or applications to verify the validity and status of a certificate. A validation authority (VA) is an entity that provides online certificate validation services, such as OCSP or SCVP, to verify the revocation status of a certificate in real time123.


Reference:

Public key infrastructure - Wikipedia, Wikipedia, March 16, 2021 Components of a PKI - The National Cyber Security Centre, NCSC, 2020 Network Defense Essentials Courseware, EC-Council, 2020, pp. 3-26 to 3-27



George, a certified security professional, was hired by an organization to ensure that the server accurately responds to customer requests. In this process, George employed a security solution to monitor the network traffic toward the server.
While monitoring the traffic, he identified attack signatures such as SYN flood and ping of death attempts on the server.
Which of the following categories of suspicious traffic signature has George identified in the above scenario?

  1. Informational
  2. Reconnaissance
  3. Unauthorized access
  4. Denial-of-service (DoS)

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Denial-of-service (DoS) is the category of suspicious traffic signature that George identified in the above scenario. DoS signatures are designed to detect attempts to disrupt or degrade the availability or performance of a system or network by overwhelming it with excessive or malformed traffic. SYN flood and ping of death are examples of DoS attacks that exploit the TCP/IP protocol to consume the resources or crash the target server. A SYN flood attack sends a large number of TCP SYN packets to the target server, without completing the three-way handshake, thus creating a backlog of half-open connections that exhaust the server's memory or bandwidth. A ping of death attack sends a malformed ICMP echo request packet that exceeds the maximum size allowed by the IP protocol, thus causing the target server to crash or reboot. DoS attacks can cause serious damage to the organization's reputation, productivity, and revenue, and should be detected and mitigated as soon as possible123.


Reference:

Network Defense Essentials Courseware, EC-Council, 2020, pp. 3-33 to 3-34 What is a denial-of-service attack?, Cloudflare, 2020
Denial-of-service attack - Wikipedia, Wikipedia, March 16, 2021



Identify the loT communication model that serves as an analyzer for a company to track monthly or yearly energy consumption. Using this analysis, companies can reduce the expenditure on energy.

  1. Device-to-device model
  2. Cloud-to-cloud model
  3. Device-to-cloud model
  4. Device-to-gateway model

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The loT communication model that serves as an analyzer for a company to track monthly or yearly energy consumption is the device-to-cloud model. The device-to-cloud model is a loT communication model where the loT devices, such as smart meters, sensors, or thermostats, send data directly to the cloud platform, such as AWS, Azure, or Google Cloud, over the internet. The cloud platform then processes, analyzes, and stores the data, and provides feedback, control, or visualization to the users or applications. The device-to-cloud model enables the company to monitor and optimize the energy consumption of the loT devices in real time, and to leverage the cloud services, such as machine learning, big data analytics, or artificial intelligence, to perform advanced energy management and demand response. The device-to-cloud model also reduces the complexity and cost of the loT infrastructure, as it does not require intermediate gateways or servers to connect the loT devices to the cloud123.


Reference:

Network Defense Essentials Courseware, EC-Council, 2020, pp. 3-38 to 3-39 loT Communication Models: Device-to-Device, Device-to-Cloud, Device-to-Gateway, and Back-End Data-Sharing, DZone, July 9, 2018
loT Communication Models: Device-to-Device, Device-to-Cloud, Device-to-Gateway, and Back-End Data-Sharing, Medium, March 26, 2019



Share your comments for EC-Council 112-51 exam with other users:

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
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