CSI CSC2 Exam (page: 2)
CSI Canadian Securities Course 2
Updated on: 07-Feb-2026

Viewing Page 2 of 25

Which type of mutual funds tend to have the lowest management fees?

  1. Asset allocation
  2. Small cap
  3. Bond
  4. Index

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Index mutual funds are structured to replicate the performance of a market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index. Since these funds do not require active management, their management fees are among the lowest compared to other types of mutual funds. Active management in asset allocation, small-cap, or bond funds involves more frequent trading and research, increasing operational costs.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 18: "Mutual Funds: Types and Features," discusses indexing as a fund management style and highlights its low costs compared to actively managed funds.



What type of investment typically involves massive amounts of capital provided by a small number of investors?

  1. Derivatives
  2. Infrastructure
  3. Bonds
  4. Commodities

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Infrastructure investments often require massive capital commitments for projects such as airports, highways, and utilities. These investments are typically made by institutional investors or private equity funds, involving relatively few but large-scale investors due to the high entry cost and the long-term nature of these investments.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 20: "Alternative Investments: Benefits, Risks, and Structure," explains the characteristics of infrastructure as an asset class and its association with significant capital requirements.



What must happen for a redemption to be processed from a mutual fund?

  1. Payment for redeemed securities must be within two business days after the NAVPS is determined.
  2. Mutual funds representatives must submit the order within two business days of when the order is received from the client.
  3. The offering price of the mutual fund must be calculated.
  4. The client redeeming the mutual fund must receive a Fund facts document.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

When a mutual fund redemption is processed, the fund must calculate the Net Asset Value per Share (NAVPS) to determine the redemption price. The Canadian Securities Administrators (CSA) regulations mandate that payment for redeemed securities be made within two business days following the calculation of NAVPS, ensuring prompt transactions while protecting investor interests.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 17: "Mutual Funds: Structure and Regulation," details the process and timing for mutual fund redemptions, including regulatory requirements.



What is the key objective for investors in alternative strategy funds?

  1. To match the performance of a reference index.
  2. To maximize risk-adjusted returns.
  3. To achieve absolute returns
  4. To exceed the current rate of inflation.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Alternative strategy funds aim to achieve absolute returns, focusing on positive returns under various market conditions rather than comparing performance to a benchmark index. These strategies often include hedge funds and alternative mutual funds, using techniques like leverage, short selling, and derivatives to manage risk and enhance returns. The goal is not necessarily to outperform an index (as in option A) or match inflation rates (option D) but to deliver consistent positive returns.

Reference

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 21: Alternative Investments: Strategies and Performance, p. 21-3 to 21-24.



Which ratio gauges a company's ability to repay its debts using funds generated from operating activities?

  1. Cash flow-to-total debt
  2. Interest coverage.
  3. Asset coverage.
  4. Debt-to-equity

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The cash flow-to-total debt ratio assesses a company's ability to repay its debts using cash generated from its operating activities. It is calculated by dividing operating cash flow by total debt. A higher ratio indicates better capacity to cover debts. This metric is crucial for evaluating financial health and understanding a firm's liquidity position. Other ratios listed have different focuses:

Interest coverage (B) measures a company's ability to pay interest with operating income.

Asset coverage (C) measures the protection provided to creditors.

Debt-to-equity (D) evaluates capital structure but not immediate debt repayment ability.

Reference

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 14: Company Analysis - Risk Analysis Ratios, p. 14-12 to 14-16.



Who generally executes portfolio strategy within a buy-side firm?

  1. Portfolio manager.
  2. Head of fixed income
  3. Investment advisor.
  4. Trader

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Within a buy-side firm, the portfolio manager is responsible for executing the portfolio strategy. They oversee investment decisions, asset allocation, and security selection based on the investment mandate and client objectives. Other roles:

Head of fixed income (B) specializes in fixed-income securities rather than overall strategy.

Investment advisor (C) interacts with clients, focusing on advice rather than execution.

Trader (D) carries out transactions but does not set the portfolio strategy.

Reference

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 27: Working with the Institutional Client - The Buy-Side Portfolio Manager, p.
27-8.



Which type of commodity ETF is most suitable for an investor seeking to gain exposure to the spot price of a commodity?

  1. Physical-based
  2. Swap-based
  3. Futures-based.
  4. Equity-based

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Commodity Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) provide investors with exposure to commodities such as gold, oil, and agricultural products. The most suitable type of commodity ETF for gaining exposure to the spot price of a commodity is the Physical-based ETF because it involves direct ownership or storage of the commodity. For instance, gold ETFs backed by physical gold store bullion in vaults.

1. Physical-based ETFs
These ETFs hold the actual commodity in physical form, which ensures a close tracking of the spot price. Physical gold ETFs, for example, store gold bars and adjust the NAV (Net Asset Value) based on the current spot price. This eliminates discrepancies caused by futures contracts or swaps, making them ideal for tracking spot prices.

2. Swap-based ETFs
These rely on derivative agreements (swaps) to replicate the price movements of a commodity.
While cost-effective, they do not hold the actual commodity, and their performance may slightly deviate from the spot price due to tracking errors or counterparty risks.

3. Futures-based ETFs
These use futures contracts to gain exposure. However, futures contracts come with complexities such as contango and backwardation, which can cause performance differences from the spot price over time.

4. Equity-based ETFs
These invest in shares of companies involved in the commodity sector (e.g., mining or energy companies). Their performance is influenced by company-specific factors and broader equity market trends, making them unsuitable for tracking spot prices.

Reference from CSC Study Documents:

Exchange-Traded Funds, Chapter 19, Volume 2: Discusses the characteristics and structure of ETFs, including commodity-based ETFs and their classification.

Risks related to tracking error and direct ownership of assets are highlighted under ETF types in Section 19.



What information must be disclosed in ETF Facts documents that may be excluded from Fund Facts documents?

  1. The management fee
  2. The total value of all units within the fund
  3. The investment exposure.
  4. The market price and bid-ask spread.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

ETF Facts documents are required to disclose specific details related to the trading characteristics of ETFs that may not be present in Fund Facts documents. These include the market price and bid-ask spread, which provide transparency about the costs associated with buying and selling ETFs.

Key Elements in ETF Facts Documents:

Market Price and Bid-Ask Spread

Unlike mutual funds, ETFs trade on stock exchanges. The ETF Facts document must disclose the average bid-ask spread, reflecting the cost of trading and the liquidity of the ETF. This is vital for investors assessing transaction costs.

Investment Exposure

While investment exposure may also appear in mutual funds, ETFs provide unique insights into their holdings and methodology due to their structure.

Management Fee

Management fees are included in both ETF Facts and Fund Facts documents, providing details on operational costs.

Total Value of Units

This may also be found in mutual fund documents, not exclusively in ETF Facts.

The inclusion of trading-specific metrics like the bid-ask spread in ETF Facts ensures investors are fully aware of trading costs, aiding informed decision-making.

Reference from CSC Study Documents:

Mutual Funds vs. ETFs, Chapter 19, Volume 2: Compares disclosure requirements for ETFs and mutual funds, emphasizing details unique to ETFs.

General disclosure requirements outlined in Section 19, including bid-ask spreads and market prices.



Viewing Page 2 of 25



Share your comments for CSI CSC2 exam with other users:

hi 10/5/2023 4:00:00 AM

will post exam has finished
UNITED STATES


Vmotu 8/24/2023 11:14:00 AM

really correct and good analyze!
AZERBAIJAN


hicham 5/30/2023 8:57:00 AM

excellent thanks a lot
FRANCE


Suman C 7/7/2023 8:13:00 AM

will post once pass the cka exam
INDIA


Ram 11/3/2023 5:10:00 AM

good content
Anonymous


Nagendra Pedipina 7/13/2023 2:12:00 AM

q:32 answer has to be option c
INDIA


Tamer Barakat 12/7/2023 5:17:00 PM

nice questions
Anonymous


Daryl 8/1/2022 11:33:00 PM

i really like the support team in this website. they are fast in communication and very helpful.
UNITED KINGDOM


Curtis Nakawaki 6/29/2023 9:13:00 PM

a good contemporary exam review
UNITED STATES


x-men 5/23/2023 1:02:00 AM

q23, its an array, isnt it? starts with [ and end with ]. its an array of objects, not object.
UNITED STATES


abuti 7/21/2023 6:24:00 PM

cool very helpfull
Anonymous


Krishneel 3/17/2023 10:34:00 AM

i just passed. this exam dumps is the same one from prepaway and examcollection. it has all the real test questions.
INDIA


Regor 12/4/2023 2:01:00 PM

is this a valid prince2 practitioner dumps?
UNITED KINGDOM


asl 9/14/2023 3:59:00 PM

all are relatable questions
CANADA


Siyya 1/19/2024 8:30:00 PM

might help me to prepare for the exam
Anonymous


Ted 6/21/2023 11:11:00 PM

just paid and downlaod the 2 exams using the 50% sale discount. so far i was able to download the pdf and the test engine. all looks good.
GERMANY


Paul K 11/27/2023 2:28:00 AM

i think it should be a,c. option d goes against the principle of building anything custom unless there are no work arounds available
INDIA


ph 6/16/2023 12:41:00 AM

very legible
Anonymous


sephs2001 7/31/2023 10:42:00 PM

is this exam accurate or helpful?
Anonymous


ash 7/11/2023 3:00:00 AM

please upload dump, i have exam in 2 days
INDIA


Sneha 8/17/2023 6:29:00 PM

this is useful
CANADA


sachin 12/27/2023 2:45:00 PM

question 232 answer should be perimeter not netowrk layer. wrong answer selected
Anonymous


tomAws 7/18/2023 5:05:00 AM

nice questions
BRAZIL


Rahul 6/11/2023 2:07:00 AM

hi team, could you please provide this dump ?
INDIA


TeamOraTech 12/5/2023 9:49:00 AM

very helpful to clear the exam and understand the concept.
Anonymous


Curtis 7/12/2023 8:20:00 PM

i think it is great that you are helping people when they need it. thanks.
UNITED STATES


sam 7/17/2023 6:22:00 PM

cannot evaluate yet
Anonymous


nutz 7/20/2023 1:54:00 AM

a laptops wireless antenna is most likely located in the bezel of the lid
UNITED STATES


rajesh soni 1/17/2024 6:53:00 AM

good examplae to learn basic
INDIA


Tanya 10/25/2023 7:07:00 AM

this is useful information
Anonymous


Nasir Mahmood 12/11/2023 7:32:00 AM

looks usefull
Anonymous


Jason 9/30/2023 1:07:00 PM

question 81 should be c.
CANADA


TestPD1 8/10/2023 12:22:00 PM

question 18 : response isnt a ?
EUROPEAN UNION


ally 8/19/2023 5:31:00 PM

plaese add questions
TURKEY