A security alert was triggered when an end user tried to access a website that is not allowed per organizational policy. Since the action is considered a terminable offense, the SOC analyst collects the authentication logs, web logs, and temporary files, reflecting the web searches from the user's workstation, to build the case for the investigation. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies?
Answer(s): B
Option B is correct because protecting PII and limiting access aligns with HR and privacy policies during investigations, ensuring confidentiality and compliance. A) Creates a detailed timeline but still may expose user data; privacy controls are more critical. C) Code-naming may obscure the case but does not address privacy protections or access controls. D) Notification after confirmation does not address data minimization or access control requirements essential for privacy policy compliance.
Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan?
Answer(s): A
Option A is correct because establishing disaster recovery begins with aligning on goals and objectives (RTO/RPO, scope, stakeholders) to guide all subsequent planning. Incorrect — B: site selection is a planning detail after objectives are set. Incorrect — C: adherence to a standard process is an ongoing control, not the initial step. Incorrect — D: identifying applications is part of scope and impact analysis, which follows goal setting.
A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process?
Answer(s): C
Option C is correct because after applying a patch, validation confirms that the vulnerability is mitigated and no new issues were introduced. Testing (A) refers to verifying fixes in a controlled environment before deployment, which may occur earlier in the cycle. Implementation (B) is the act of applying the patch, already done. Rollback (D) is used if the patch causes issues requiring revert. Therefore, validation ensures the remediation effectiveness in the production environment.
The analyst reviews the following endpoint log entry:Which of the following has occurred?
Option C is correct because a new account introduction is the observable event in the log entry, indicating a user or service account creation. Incorrect — A (Registry change) would show modifications to registry keys, not account creation. Incorrect — B (Rename computer) would log a host name change event, not a new account. Incorrect — D (Privilege escalation) would show elevation actions or group/role changes, not necessarily a new account creation.
A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools. Which of the following best describes what the security program did?
Answer(s): D
Option D is correct because a “single pane of glass” describes consolidating tools and data into one interface, reducing MTTR by eliminating context switching and enabling faster detection and response via a unified view in the SIEM.A) Data enrichment is adding context to events; while helpful, it doesn’t imply a unified interface or reduced tool hopping.B) Security control plane refers to the architecture coordinating controls, not specifically to unified visualization or MTTR reduction.C) Threat feed combination involves aggregating threat intelligence; it doesn’t address consolidation of tooling into a single view.
Due to reports of unauthorized activity that was occurring on the internal network, an analyst is performing a network discovery. The analyst runs an Nmap scan against a corporate network to evaluate which devices were operating in the environment. Given the following output:Which of the following choices should the analyst look at first?
Answer(s): E
Option E is correct because p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) likely indicates a compromised or attacker-controlled host name (e.g., generic/default or suspicious naming) that should be investigated first when anomalous activity is reported.A) wh4dc-748gy.lan (192.168.86.152) - looks like a normal hostname pattern; not inherently suspicious.B) officerokuplayer.lan (192.168.86.22) - resembles a typical user/device hostname; not indicative of compromise.C) imaging.lan (192.168.86.150) - benign-sounding imaging host; not flagged as suspicious.D) xlaptop.lan (192.168.86.249) - generic laptop naming; requires investigation but not primary suspect.F) Inspector notes: None of the others show obvious attacker-controlled naming; E stands out as least legitimate.
When starting an investigation, which of the following must be done first?
Option B is correct because securing the scene is the first essential step to preserve evidence integrity and prevent tampering during the initial incident response. It establishes a controlled environment for investigation and chain of custody.A) Notifying law enforcement is not the immediate first action in most internal investigations; it comes later if required by policy or law and may depend on the severity and jurisdiction.C) Seizing all related evidence is premature without stabilization and documented procedures; improper collection can contaminate the evidentiary trail.D) Interviewing witnesses is important but should occur after securing the scene and preserving evidence to avoid influencing memory or actions.
Which of the following describes how a CSIRT lead determines who should be communicated with and when during a security incident?
Option A is correct because the incident response policy or plan defines the who, when, and communication pathways during incidents, guiding the CSIRT lead’s actions in a standardized way. Incorrect — B: Management-level members may influence strategy but formal communication roles are defined in the policy, not delegated ad hoc. Incorrect — C: The lead does not have unilateral authority to decide whom to contact at any time; communications follow the policy and escalation matrices. Incorrect — D: Subject matter experts communicate within their expertise, but the overarching communication plan governs who is notified and when, not just SME discretion.
Share your comments for CompTIA CS0-003 exam with other users:
will post exam has finished
really correct and good analyze!
excellent thanks a lot
will post once pass the cka exam
good content
q:32 answer has to be option c
nice questions
i really like the support team in this website. they are fast in communication and very helpful.
a good contemporary exam review
q23, its an array, isnt it? starts with [ and end with ]. its an array of objects, not object.
cool very helpfull
i just passed. this exam dumps is the same one from prepaway and examcollection. it has all the real test questions.
is this a valid prince2 practitioner dumps?
all are relatable questions
might help me to prepare for the exam
just paid and downlaod the 2 exams using the 50% sale discount. so far i was able to download the pdf and the test engine. all looks good.
i think it should be a,c. option d goes against the principle of building anything custom unless there are no work arounds available
very legible
is this exam accurate or helpful?
please upload dump, i have exam in 2 days
this is useful
question 232 answer should be perimeter not netowrk layer. wrong answer selected
hi team, could you please provide this dump ?
very helpful to clear the exam and understand the concept.
i think it is great that you are helping people when they need it. thanks.
cannot evaluate yet
a laptops wireless antenna is most likely located in the bezel of the lid
good examplae to learn basic
this is useful information
looks usefull
question 81 should be c.
question 18 : response isnt a ?
plaese add questions