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Cisco Certified Support Technician (CCST) Cybersecurity 100-160 Dumps in PDF

Free Cisco 100-160 Real Questions (page: 3)

100-160 PDF — 84 Questions

Why is it necessary to update firmware to the latest version?

  1. To support the latest operating systems and applications
  2. To patch firmware in the kernel of the operating system
  3. To correct security holes and weaknesses
  4. To explore new hardware features

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

According to the CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide, firmware updates are a critical security maintenance task because vulnerabilities in firmware can be exploited by attackers to gain persistent control over hardware.
"Keeping firmware up to date is necessary to patch security vulnerabilities and weaknesses that could be exploited by threat actors. Vendors release firmware updates to correct security flaws, enhance stability, and ensure compatibility with updated security protocols." (CCST Cybersecurity, Endpoint Security Concepts, System and Firmware Maintenance section, Cisco Networking Academy)
A is partially true but not the primary security reason for updates. B is incorrect because firmware is not part of the OS kernel; it's embedded in the hardware. C is correct: patching vulnerabilities in firmware is essential for endpoint protection. D may occur as a side benefit, but it's not the main reason from a cybersecurity perspective.



How do threat actors launch ransomware attacks on organizations?

  1. They implant malware to collect data from the corporation's financial system.
  2. They deface an organization's public-facing website.
  3. They lock data and deny access to the data until they receive money.
  4. They secretly spy on employees and collect employees' personal information.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The CCST Cybersecurity course describes ransomware as a form of malicious software that encrypts or locks access to an organization's data, demanding payment for its release. "Ransomware is a type of malware that denies access to data by encrypting it and demands payment from the victim to restore access. Threat actors may deliver ransomware through phishing emails, malicious downloads, or exploiting vulnerabilities in exposed systems." (CCST Cybersecurity, Essential Security Principles, Malware Types and Threats section, Cisco Networking Academy)
A describes spyware or information-stealing malware. B is website defacement, which is vandalism, not ransomware. C is correct: locking/encrypting data and demanding payment is the defining behavior of ransomware.
D is more aligned with insider threat or espionage activities.



Which macOS security feature encrypts the entire macOS volume?

  1. FileVault
  2. Gatekeeper
  3. System Integrity Protection (SIP)
  4. XProtect

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide highlights FileVault as the macOS full-disk encryption tool. "FileVault is macOS's built-in full-disk encryption feature. It encrypts the contents of the entire startup disk to help prevent unauthorized access to the information stored on the drive, even if the device is lost or stolen."
(CCST Cybersecurity, Endpoint Security Concepts, Disk Encryption section, Cisco Networking Academy)
A is correct: FileVault provides complete volume encryption. B (Gatekeeper) controls app installation by verifying code signatures. C (System Integrity Protection) protects system files from modification.

D (XProtect) is macOS's built-in malware detection system.



You are reviewing your company's disaster recovery plan.
Which two daily data backup actions should the plan include? (Choose 2.)

  1. Back up the data to removable media and store it off-site.
  2. Back up each department's data to a separate local server.
  3. Back up the data by using cloud services.
  4. Back up the data by using RAID on a local external hard drive with a secondary power source.

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide emphasizes that backups should be stored off-site or in the cloud to ensure recovery even if the primary location is damaged or compromised. "A comprehensive disaster recovery plan includes performing regular backups and ensuring copies are stored in locations not subject to the same physical risks as the primary site. Off-site storage and cloud-based backups provide resilience against local disasters." (CCST Cybersecurity, Essential Security Principles, Backup and Disaster Recovery section, Cisco Networking Academy)
A is correct: Off-site removable media ensures recovery even if the main site is destroyed. B is incorrect: Local-only backups are vulnerable to the same risks as production systems. C is correct: Cloud services provide geographically separate storage with automated redundancy. D is incorrect: RAID is for hardware fault tolerance, not a complete backup solution.



Which two passwords follow strong password policy guidelines? (Choose 2.)

  1. Wh@tareyouDo1ngtoday4
  2. Feb121978
  3. Fluffy#
  4. 1mPressm3!

Answer(s): A,D

Explanation:

The CCST Cybersecurity course defines a strong password as one that:
Is at least 8­12 characters long
Uses a mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols Avoids dictionary words, personal information, and predictable patterns

"Strong passwords combine length, complexity, and unpredictability, making them resistant to brute force and dictionary attacks."
(CCST Cybersecurity, Essential Security Principles, Authentication and Access Control section, Cisco Networking Academy)
A is correct: It's long, mixed case, includes numbers and symbols, and is not easily guessable. B is incorrect: It's based on a date, which is predictable. C is incorrect: Short and based on a dictionary word. D is correct: Uses complexity and length with leetspeak for added unpredictability.



Your home network seems to have slowed down considerably. You look at the home router GUI and notice that an unknown host is attached to the network.
What should you do to prevent this specific host from attaching to the network again?

  1. Create an IP access control list.
  2. Implement MAC address filtering.
  3. Block the host IP address.
  4. Change the network SSI

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The CCST Cybersecurity course explains that MAC address filtering is a network access control method that allows only approved device hardware addresses to connect.
While not foolproof against spoofing, it can block a specific device from reconnecting to a small home network. "MAC address filtering restricts network access to devices whose unique hardware addresses are explicitly allowed. This can be used to block known unauthorized devices from reconnecting." (CCST Cybersecurity, Basic Network Security Concepts, Wireless Security Controls section, Cisco Networking Academy)
A is incorrect: IP ACLs are better for controlling traffic types, not blocking specific devices at the router level.
B is correct: It prevents the device's hardware address from reconnecting. C is temporary since the host can get a new IP via DHCP.

D may hide the network but will not stop a determined attacker who can still detect it.



HOTSPOT
For each statement, select True if it is a common motivation to commit cyber attacks or False if it is not.
Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct selection.

  1. See Explanation for the Answer.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:



The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide outlines common motivations for cyberattacks, which include:
Financial gain
Revenge or personal grievance (e.g., disgruntled employees) Ideological or political purposes (hacktivism)
Espionage and intelligence gathering
"Cyberattack motivations range from financial and competitive advantage to personal vendettas and advancing political or social causes. Disgruntled insiders may misuse access privileges to harm an organization, while hacktivists target systems to promote social or political messages." (CCST Cybersecurity, Essential Security Principles, Threat Actor Motivations section, Cisco Networking Academy)
Being disgruntled at work common insider threat motivation (True) Wanting to protect personal data defensive action, not a reason to commit an attack (False) Wanting to advance a social agenda hacktivist motivation (True)



What should you create to prevent spoofing of the internal network?

  1. A NAT rule
  2. An ACL
  3. A record in the host file
  4. A DNS record

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide states that Access Control Lists (ACLs) can be used to filter traffic based on IP addresses and block packets that appear to originate from the internal network but arrive from external interfaces (IP spoofing).
"ACLs can prevent spoofing by dropping traffic from external sources that claim to have an internal source address. Configuring ACLs on the perimeter firewall or router is a common countermeasure for IP spoofing."
(CCST Cybersecurity, Basic Network Security Concepts, ACLs and Traffic Filtering section, Cisco Networking Academy)
A (NAT rule) changes IP addresses but does not inherently prevent spoofing. B (ACL) is correct because it can enforce anti-spoofing filters.
C (host file) only affects name resolution locally.
D (DNS record) is for domain mapping, not spoofing prevention.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
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