AB-Abdomen Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION: 17

Which probe frequency is most appropriate for imaging of the salivary glands?

2 MHz
4 MHz
8 MHz
12 MHz

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Salivary glands are superficial structures, and high-frequency transducers (1015 MHz) are optimal to obtain high spatial resolution. Lower frequencies are inappropriate as they lack sufficient resolution for superficial structures. A 12 MHz transducer provides excellent detail necessary for detecting small lesions, duct abnormalities, and vascular structures.

According to Rumack et al., Diagnostic Ultrasound:

"High-frequency linear transducers (1015 MHz) are recommended for evaluating superficial structures such as salivary glands." (Rumack CM et al., Diagnostic Ultrasound, 5th ed.).

Reference:

Rumack CM, Wilson SR, Charboneau JW, Levine D. Diagnostic Ultrasound. 5th ed. Elsevier; 2017.

AIUM Practice Parameter for the Performance of a Head and Neck Ultrasound Examination, 2020.

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QUESTION: 18

A patient with hepatocellular carcinoma presents for a paracentesis.
Which lab value is the most pertinent to the procedure?

International normalized ratio
Alanine aminotransferase
Alpha fetoprotein
Total bilirubin

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Before performing a paracentesis, assessment of the patient's coagulation status is crucial to minimize bleeding risk. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the standard lab value used to assess coagulation. Elevated INR may increase the risk of bleeding complications during the procedure. ALT, AFP, and bilirubin levels evaluate liver function or cancer progression but are not directly relevant to bleeding risk for this procedure.

As per AASLD and SIR guidelines:

"An INR and platelet count should be evaluated before paracentesis to assess bleeding risk. Minor elevations in INR (<1.5) may not contraindicate the procedure." (AASLD Practice Guidance, 2021; SIR Consensus Guidelines, 2019).

Reference:

American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD), Management of Ascites, 2021.

Society of Interventional Radiology (SIR) Consensus Guidelines for Coagulation Parameters in Image- Guided Procedures, 2019.

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QUESTION: 19

Which cause of transudative pleural effusion is most common?

Congestive heart failure
Pulmonary emboli
Lymphoma
Empyema

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Transudative pleural effusions result from imbalances in hydrostatic and oncotic pressures, most commonly caused by congestive heart failure (CHF). In CHF, elevated hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries leads to fluid leakage into the pleural space without significant protein or cellular content (hence, transudate). Exudative effusions (associated with infections, malignancy, and inflammation) are more often seen with pulmonary emboli, lymphoma, or empyema.

According to Light's criteria (which differentiates transudates from exudates):

"Congestive heart failure remains the leading cause of transudative pleural effusions." (Light RW.
Pleural Diseases, 6th ed.).

Reference:

Light RW. Pleural Diseases. 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2013.

American Thoracic Society Guidelines for Diagnosis and Management of Pleural Effusion, 2019.

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QUESTION: 20

Which sonographic appearance of the normal epididymis is the most common?

Isoechoic to the testis
Anechoic with hyperechoic borders
Homogeneous compared to the testis
Hypoechoic with irregular borders

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The normal epididymis typically appears as a homogeneous structure that is either isoechoic or slightly hypoechoic compared to the testis. The most accurate description is "homogeneous compared to the testis," meaning the texture is uniform. It is not anechoic, nor does it typically show irregular borders unless pathology is present.

According to Rumack's Diagnostic Ultrasound:

"The normal epididymis appears homogeneous and is isoechoic or slightly hypoechoic relative to the testis." (Rumack CM et al., Diagnostic Ultrasound, 5th ed.)

Reference:

Rumack CM, Wilson SR, Charboneau JW, Levine D. Diagnostic Ultrasound. 5th ed. Elsevier; 2017.

AIUM Practice Parameter for Scrotal Ultrasound, 2020.

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QUESTION: 21

Which vessel is located directly proximal to the origination of the renal arteries?

Left portal vein
Splenic vein
Hepatic artery
Superior mesenteric artery

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The renal arteries originate from the abdominal aorta just inferior to the superior mesenteric artery (SMA). The SMA arises anteriorly from the abdominal aorta at the level of L1, and just below it, the renal arteries branch laterally. The splenic vein, portal vein, and hepatic artery are located more superiorly in relation to the renal arteries.

According to Moore's Clinically Oriented Anatomy:

"The superior mesenteric artery arises from the anterior surface of the abdominal aorta just above the renal arteries." (Moore KL et al., Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 8th ed.)

Reference:

Moore KL, Dalley AF, Agur AMR. Clinically Oriented Anatomy. 8th ed. Wolters Kluwer, 2018.

Gray's Anatomy for Students, 4th ed., Elsevier, 2019.

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QUESTION: 22

Which organ is held in place by the lienorenal, gastrosplenic, and phrenocolic ligaments?

Stomach
Spleen
Pancreas
Left kidney

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The spleen is suspended in the left upper quadrant by several peritoneal ligaments, including:

Lienorenal (splenorenal) ligament -- attaches spleen to the left kidney.

Gastrosplenic ligament -- attaches spleen to the stomach.

Phrenocolic ligament -- supports the spleen inferiorly between diaphragm and colon.

These ligaments stabilize the spleen's position while allowing some mobility.

According to Moore's Clinically Oriented Anatomy:

"The spleen is connected to the stomach by the gastrosplenic ligament and to the posterior abdominal wall (near the left kidney) by the splenorenal (lienorenal) ligament. The phrenocolic ligament provides inferior support."

Reference:

Moore KL, Dalley AF, Agur AMR. Clinically Oriented Anatomy. 8th ed. Wolters Kluwer, 2018.

Gray's Anatomy for Students, 4th ed., Elsevier, 2019.

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QUESTION: 23

Which structure is located between the fundus of the stomach and the diaphragm?

Caudate lobe of the liver
Left lobe of the liver
Right kidney
Spleen

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The spleen lies in the left hypochondrium, superior and lateral to the fundus of the stomach, and directly contacts the diaphragm. It occupies the space between the stomach and diaphragm. The liver and kidneys are located more medially or inferiorly.

According to Gray's Anatomy for Students:

"The spleen lies posterolateral to the fundus of the stomach, separated from the diaphragm by its fibrous capsule."

Reference:

Gray's Anatomy for Students, 4th ed., Elsevier, 2019.

Moore KL, Clinically Oriented Anatomy, 8th ed.

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QUESTION: 24

Which disease process may cause numerous shadowing calcifications to form within the spleen?

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Sickle cell anemia
Histoplasmosis
Thalassemia

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection that can lead to granulomatous disease. Chronic granulomatous infections may result in multiple splenic calcifications that appear as small echogenic foci with shadowing on ultrasound. Other infectious granulomas (e.g., tuberculosis) may present similarly.

According to Rumack's Diagnostic Ultrasound:

"Granulomatous infections such as histoplasmosis and tuberculosis may produce multiple splenic calcifications, often with shadowing."

Reference:

Rumack CM, Wilson SR, Charboneau JW, Levine D. Diagnostic Ultrasound. 5th ed. Elsevier, 2017.

AIUM Practice Parameter for the Performance of Abdominal Ultrasound Examinations, 2020.

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ARDMS AB-Abdomen Exam (page: 3) ARDMS Abdomen Sonographyination Updated on: 12-Feb-2026

QUESTION: 17

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QUESTION: 18

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QUESTION: 19

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QUESTION: 20

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QUESTION: 21

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QUESTION: 22

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QUESTION: 23

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QUESTION: 24

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ARDMS AB-Abdomen Exam (page: 3)
ARDMS Abdomen Sonographyination
Updated on: 12-Feb-2026