Amazon AWS Certified Security - Specialty (Replaced with SCS-C03) SCS-C02 Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon SCS-C02 Real Questions (page: 23)

A company discovers a billing anomaly in its AWS account. A security consultant investigates the anomaly and discovers that an employee who left the company 30 days ago still has access to the account. The company has not monitored account activity in the past.
The security consultant needs to determine which resources have been deployed or reconfigured by the employee as quickly as possible.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. In AWS Cost Explorer, filter chart data to display results from the past 30 days. Export the results to a data table. Group the data table by resource.
  2. Use AWS Cost Anomaly Detection to create a cost monitor. Access the detection history. Set the time frame to Last 30 days. In the search area, choose the service category.
  3. In AWS CloudTrail, filter the event history to display results from the past 30 days. Create an Amazon Athena table that contains the data. Partition the table by event source.
  4. Use AWS Audit Manager to create an assessment for the past 30 days. Apply a usage-based framework to the assessment. Configure the assessment to assess by resource.

Answer(s): C



A security engineer is checking an AWS CloudFormation template for vulnerabilities. The security engineer finds a parameter that has a default value that exposes an application's API key in plaintext. The parameter is referenced several times throughout the template. The security engineer must replace the parameter while maintaining the ability to reference the value in the template.
Which solution will meet these requirements in the MOST secure way?

  1. Store the API key value as a SecureString parameter in AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store. In the template, replace all references to the value with {{resolve:ssm:MySSMParameterName:1}}.
  2. Store the API key value in AWS Secrets Manager. In the template, replace all references to the value with {{resolve:secretsmanager:MySecretId:SecretString}}.
  3. Store the API key value in Amazon DynamoDB. In the template, replace all references to the value with {{resolve:dynamodb:MyTableName:MyPrimaryKey}}.
  4. Store the API key value in a new Amazon S3 bucket. In the template, replace all references to the value with {{resolve:s3:MyBucketName:MyObjectName}}.

Answer(s): B



A company's AWS CloudTrail logs are all centrally stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. The security team controls the company's AWS account. The security team must prevent unauthorized access and tampering of the CloudTrail logs.
Which combination of steps should the security team take? (Choose three.)

  1. Configure server-side encryption with AWS KMS managed encryption keys (SSE-KMS).
  2. Compress log files with secure gzip.
  3. Create an Amazon EventBridge rule to notify the security team of any modifications on CloudTrail log files.
  4. Implement least privilege access to the S3 bucket by configuring a bucket policy.
  5. Configure CloudTrail log file integrity validation.
  6. Configure Access Analyzer for S3.

Answer(s): A,D,E



A company has several petabytes of data. The company must preserve this data for 7 years to comply with regulatory requirements. The company's compliance team asks a security officer to develop a strategy that will prevent anyone from changing or deleting the data.
Which solution will meet this requirement MOST cost-effectively?

  1. Create an Amazon S3 bucket. Configure the bucket to use S3 Object Lock in compliance mode. Upload the data to the bucket. Create a resource-based bucket policy that meets all the regulatory requirements.
  2. Create an Amazon S3 bucket. Configure the bucket to use S3 Object Lock in governance mode. Upload the data to the bucket. Create a user-based IAM policy that meets all the regulatory requirements.
  3. Create a vault in Amazon S3 Glacier. Create a Vault Lock policy in S3 Glacier that meets all the regulatory requirements. Upload the data to the vault.
  4. Create an Amazon S3 bucket. Upload the data to the bucket. Use a lifecycle rule to transition the data to a vault in S3 Glacier. Create a Vault Lock policy that meets all the regulatory requirements.

Answer(s): C



A-company uses a third-party identity provider and SAML-based SSO for its AWS accounts. After the third-party identity provider renewed an expired signing certificate, users saw the following message when trying to log in:
Error: Response Signature Invalid (Service: AWSSecurityTokenService; Status Code: 400; Error Code: InvalidIdentityToken)
A security engineer needs to provide a solution that corrects the error and minimizes operational overhead.
Which solution meets these requirements?

  1. Upload the third-party signing certificate’s new private key to the AWS identity provider entity defined in AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) by using the AWS Management Console.
  2. Sign the identity provider's metadata file with the new public key. Upload the signature to the AWS identity provider entity defined in AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) by using the AWS CLI.
  3. Download the updated SAML metadata file from the identity service provider. Update the file in the AWS identity provider entity defined in AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) by using the AWS CLI.
  4. Configure the AWS identity provider entity defined in AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) to synchronously fetch the new public key by using the AWS Management Console.

Answer(s): C



A company has several workloads running on AWS. Employees are required to authenticate using on-premises ADFS and SSO to access the AWS Management Console. Developers migrated an existing legacy web application to an Amazon EC2 instance. Employees need to access this application from anywhere on the internet, but currently, there is no authentication system built into the application.
How should the security engineer implement employee-only access to this system without changing the application?

  1. Place the application behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Use Amazon Cognito as authentication for the ALB. Define a SAML-based Amazon Cognito user pool and connect it to ADFS.
  2. Implement AWS IAM Identity Center (AWS Single Sign-On) in the management account and link it to ADFS as an identity provider. Define the EC2 instance as a managed resource, then apply an IAM policy on the resource.
  3. Define an Amazon Cognito identity pool, then install the connector on the Active Directory server. Use the Amazon Cognito SDK on the application instance to authenticate the employees using their Active Directory user names and passwords.
  4. Create an AWS Lambda custom authorizer as the authenticator for a reverse proxy on Amazon EC2. Ensure the security group on Amazon EC2 only allows access from the Lambda function.

Answer(s): A



A company is using AWS to run a long-running analysis process on data that is stored in Amazon S3 buckets. The process runs on a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances that are in an Auto Scaling group. The EC2 instances are deployed in a private subnet of a VPC that does not have internet access. The EC2 instances and the S3 buckets are in the same AWS account.
The EC2 instances access the S3 buckets through an S3 gateway endpoint that has the default access policy. Each EC2 instance is associated with an instance profile role that has a policy that explicitly allows the s3:GetObject action and the s3:PutObject action for only the required S3 buckets.
The company learns that one or more of the EC2 instances are compromised and are exfiltrating data to an S3 bucket that is outside the company's organization in AWS Organizations. A security engineer must implement a solution to stop this exfiltration of data and to keep the EC2 processing job functional.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Update the policy on the S3 gateway endpoint to allow the S3 actions only if the values of the aws:ResourceOrgID and aws:PrincipalOrgID condition keys match the company's values.
  2. Update the policy on the instance profile role to allow the S3 actions only if the value of the aws:ResourceOrgID condition key matches the company's value.
  3. Add a network ACL rule to the subnet of the EC2 instances to block outgoing connections on port 443.
  4. Apply an SCP on the AWS account to allow the S3 actions only if the values of the aws:ResourceOrgID and aws:PrincipalOrgID condition keys match the company's values.

Answer(s): D



A company that operates in a hybrid cloud environment must meet strict compliance requirements. The company wants to create a report that includes evidence from on-premises workloads alongside evidence from AWS resources. A security engineer must implement a solution to collect, review, and manage the evidence to demonstrate compliance with company policy.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Create an assessment in AWS Audit Manager from a prebuilt framework or a custom framework. Upload manual evidence from the on-premises workloads. Add the evidence to the assessment. Generate an assessment report after Audit Manager collects the necessary evidence from the AWS resources.
  2. Install the Amazon CloudWatch agent on the on-premises workloads. Use AWS Config to deploy a conformance pack from a sample conformance pack template or a custom YAML template. Generate an assessment report after AWS Config identifies noncompliant workloads and resources.
  3. Set up the appropriate security standard in AWS Security Hub. Upload manual evidence from the on-premises workloads. Wait for Security Hub to collect the evidence from the AWS resources. Download the list of controls as a .csv file.
  4. Install the Amazon CloudWatch agent on the on-premises workloads. Create a CloudWatch dashboard to monitor the on-premises workloads and the AWS resources. Run a query on the workloads and resources. Download the results.

Answer(s): A



Share your comments for Amazon SCS-C02 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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