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Amazon AWS Certified Security - Specialty (Replaced with SCS-C03) SCS-C02 Exam Questions in PDF

Free Amazon SCS-C02 Dumps Questions (page: 1)

SCS-C02 PDF — 308 Questions

A company has an AWS Lambda function that creates image thumbnails from larger images. The Lambda function needs read and write access to an Amazon S3 bucket in the same AWS account.
Which solutions will provide the Lambda function this access? (Choose two.)

  1. Create an IAM user that has only programmatic access. Create a new access key pair. Add environmental variables to the Lambda function with the access key ID and secret access key. Modify the Lambda function to use the environmental variables at run time during communication with Amazon S3.
  2. Generate an Amazon EC2 key pair. Store the private key in AWS Secrets Manager. Modify the Lambda function to retrieve the private key from Secrets Manager and to use the private key during communication with Amazon S3.
  3. Create an IAM role for the Lambda function. Attach an IAM policy that allows access to the S3 bucket.
  4. Create an IAM role for the Lambda function. Attach a bucket policy to the S3 bucket to allow access. Specify the function's IAM role as the principal.
  5. Create a security group. Attach the security group to the Lambda function. Attach a bucket policy that allows access to the S3 bucket through the security group ID.

Answer(s): C,D



A security engineer is configuring a new website that is named example.com. The security engineer wants to secure communications with the website by requiring users to connect to example.com through HTTPS.
Which of the following is a valid option for storing SSL/TLS certificates?

  1. Custom SSL certificate that is stored in AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)
  2. Default SSL certificate that is stored in Amazon CloudFront
  3. Custom SSL certificate that is stored in AWS Certificate Manager (ACM)
  4. Default SSL certificate that is stored in Amazon S3

Answer(s): C



A security engineer needs to develop a process to investigate and respond to potential security events on a company's Amazon EC2 instances. All the EC2 instances are backed by Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS). The company uses AWS Systems Manager to manage all the EC2 instances and has installed Systems Manager Agent (SSM Agent) on all the EC2 instances.
The process that the security engineer is developing must comply with AWS security best practices and must meet the following requirements:
A compromised EC2 instance's volatile memory and non-volatile memory must be preserved for forensic purposes.
A compromised EC2 instance's metadata must be updated with corresponding incident ticket information.
A compromised EC2 instance must remain online during the investigation but must be isolated to prevent the spread of malware.
Any investigative activity during the collection of volatile data must be captured as part of the process.
Which combination of steps should the security engineer take to meet these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead? (Choose three.)

  1. Gather any relevant metadata for the compromised EC2 instance. Enable termination protection. Isolate the instance by updating the instance's security groups to restrict access. Detach the instance from any Auto Scaling groups that the instance is a member of. Deregister the instance from any Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) resources.
  2. Gather any relevant metadata for the compromised EC2 instance. Enable termination protection. Move the instance to an isolation subnet that denies all source and destination traffic. Associate the instance with the subnet to restrict access. Detach the instance from any Auto Scaling groups that the instance is a member of. Deregister the instance from any Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) resources.
  3. Use Systems Manager Run Command to invoke scripts that collect volatile data.
  4. Establish a Linux SSH or Windows Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) session to the compromised EC2 instance to invoke scripts that collect volatile data.
  5. Create a snapshot of the compromised EC2 instance's EBS volume for follow-up investigations. Tag the instance with any relevant metadata and incident ticket information.
  6. Create a Systems Manager State Manager association to generate an EBS volume snapshot of the compromised EC2 instance. Tag the instance with any relevant metadata and incident ticket information.

Answer(s): A,C,E



A company has an organization in AWS Organizations. The company wants to use AWS CloudFormation StackSets in the organization to deploy various AWS design patterns into environments. These patterns consist of Amazon EC2 instances, Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) load balancers, Amazon RDS databases, and Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) clusters or Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) clusters.
Currently, the company’s developers can create their own CloudFormation stacks to increase the overall speed of delivery. A centralized CI/CD pipeline in a shared services AWS account deploys each CloudFormation stack.
The company's security team has already provided requirements for each service in accordance with internal standards. If there are any resources that do not comply with the internal standards, the security team must receive notification to take appropriate action. The security team must implement a notification solution that gives developers the ability to maintain the same overall delivery speed that they currently have.
Which solution will meet these requirements in the MOST operationally efficient way?

  1. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Subscribe the security team's email addresses to the SNS topic. Create a custom AWS Lambda function that will run the aws cloudformation validate-template AWS CLI command on all CloudFormation templates before the build stage in the CI/CD pipeline. Configure the CI/CD pipeline to publish a notification to the SNS topic if any issues are found.
  2. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic. Subscribe the security team's email addresses to the SNS topic. Create custom rules in CloudFormation Guard for each resource configuration. In the CI/CD pipeline, before the build stage, configure a Docker image to run the cfn-guard command on the CloudFormation template. Configure the CI/CD pipeline to publish a notification to the SNS topic if any issues are found.
  3. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic and an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. Subscribe the security team's email addresses to the SNS topic. Create an Amazon S3 bucket in the shared services AWS account. Include an event notification to publish to the SQS queue when new objects are added to the S3 bucket. Require the developers to put their CloudFormation templates in the S3 bucket. Launch EC2 instances that automatically scale based on the SQS queue depth. Configure the EC2 instances to use CloudFormation Guard to scan the templates and deploy the templates if there are no issues. Configure the CI/CD pipeline to publish a notification to the SNS topic if any issues are found.
  4. Create a centralized CloudFormation stack set that includes a standard set of resources that the developers can deploy in each AWS account. Configure each CloudFormation template to meet the security requirements. For any new resources or configurations, update the CloudFormation template and send the template to the security team for review. When the review is completed, add the new CloudFormation stack to the repository for the developers to use.

Answer(s): B



A company is migrating one of its legacy systems from an on-premises data center to AWS. The application server will run on AWS, but the database must remain in the on-premises data center for compliance reasons. The database is sensitive to network latency. Additionally, the data that travels between the on-premises data center and AWS must have IPsec encryption.
Which combination of AWS solutions will meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

  1. AWS Site-to-Site VPN
  2. AWS Direct Connect
  3. AWS VPN CloudHub
  4. VPC peering
  5. NAT gateway

Answer(s): A,B



A company has an application that uses dozens of Amazon DynamoDB tables to store data. Auditors find that the tables do not comply with the company's data protection policy.
The company's retention policy states that all data must be backed up twice each month: once at midnight on the 15th day of the month and again at midnight on the 25th day of the month. The company must retain the backups for 3 months.
Which combination of steps should a security engineer take to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

  1. Use the DynamoDB on-demand backup capability to create a backup plan. Configure a lifecycle policy to expire backups after 3 months.
  2. Use AWS DataSync to create a backup plan. Add a backup rule that includes a retention period of 3 months.
  3. Use AWS Backup to create a backup plan. Add a backup rule that includes a retention period of 3 months.
  4. Set the backup frequency by using a cron schedule expression. Assign each DynamoDB table to the backup plan.
  5. Set the backup frequency by using a rate schedule expression. Assign each DynamoDB table to the backup plan.

Answer(s): C,D



A company needs a security engineer to implement a scalable solution for multi-account authentication and authorization. The solution should not introduce additional user-managed architectural components. Native AWS features should be used as much as possible. The security engineer has set up AWS Organizations with all features activated and AWS IAM Identity Center (AWS Single Sign-On) enabled.
Which additional steps should the security engineer take to complete the task?

  1. Use AD Connector to create users and groups for all employees that require access to AWS accounts. Assign AD Connector groups to AWS accounts and link to the IAM roles in accordance with the employees’ job functions and access requirements. Instruct employees to access AWS accounts by using the AWS Directory Service user portal.
  2. Use an IAM Identity Center default directory to create users and groups for all employees that require access to AWS accounts. Assign groups to AWS accounts and link to permission sets in accordance with the employees’ job functions and access requirements. Instruct employees to access AWS accounts by using the IAM Identity Center user portal.
  3. Use an IAM Identity Center default directory to create users and groups for all employees that require access to AWS accounts. Link IAM Identity Center groups to the IAM users present in all accounts to inherit existing permissions. Instruct employees to access AWS accounts by using the IAM Identity Center user portal.
  4. Use AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory to create users and groups for all employees that require access to AWS accounts. Enable AWS Management Console access in the created directory and specify IAM Identity Center as a source of information for integrated accounts and permission sets. Instruct employees to access AWS accounts by using the AWS Directory Service user portal.

Answer(s): B



A company has deployed Amazon GuardDuty and now wants to implement automation for potential threats. The company has decided to start with RDP brute force attacks that come from Amazon EC2 instances in the company's AWS environment. A security engineer needs to implement a solution that blocks the detected communication from a suspicious instance until investigation and potential remediation can occur.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Configure GuardDuty to send the event to an Amazon Kinesis data stream. Process the event with an Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for Apache Flink application that sends a notification to the company through Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS). Add rules to the network ACL to block traffic to and from the suspicious instance.
  2. Configure GuardDuty to send the event to Amazon EventBridge. Deploy an AWS WAF web ACL. Process the event with an AWS Lambda function that sends a notification to the company through Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) and adds a web ACL rule to block traffic to and from the suspicious instance.
  3. Enable AWS Security Hub to ingest GuardDuty findings and send the event to Amazon EventBridge. Deploy AWS Network Firewall. Process the event with an AWS Lambda function that adds a rule to a Network Firewall firewall policy to block traffic to and from the suspicious instance.
  4. Enable AWS Security Hub to ingest GuardDuty findings. Configure an Amazon Kinesis data stream as an event destination for Security Hub. Process the event with an AWS Lambda function that replaces the security group of the suspicious instance with a security group that does not allow any connections.

Answer(s): C



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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UNITED STATES
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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Anonymous
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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

Anonymous
E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

UNITED KINGDOM
V
vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Anonymous
M
Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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UNITED STATES
O
OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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SOUTH AFRICA
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