Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional SAP-C02 SAP-C01 Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon SAP-C01 Real Questions (page: 5)

A company has created an OU in AWS Organizations for each of its engineering teams. Each OU owns multiple AWS accounts. The organization has hundreds of AWS accounts.

A solutions architect must design a solution so that each OU can view a breakdown of usage costs across its AWS accounts.

Which solution meets these requirements?

  1. Create an AWS Cost and Usage Report (CUR) for each OU by using AWS Resource Access Manager. Allow each team to visualize the CUR through an Amazon QuickSight dashboard.
  2. Create an AWS Cost and Usage Report (CUR) from the AWS Organizations management account. Allow each team to visualize the CUR through an Amazon QuickSight dashboard.
  3. Create an AWS Cost and Usage Report (CUR) in each AWS Organizations member account. Allow each team to visualize the CUR through an Amazon QuickSight dashboard.
  4. Create an AWS Cost and Usage Report (CUR) by using AWS Systems Manager. Allow each team to visualize the CUR through Systems Manager OpsCenter dashboards.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

B) Create an AWS Cost and Usage Report (CUR) from the AWS Organizations management account. Allow each team to visualize the CUR through an Amazon QuickSight dashboard is the correct solution because AWS Cost and Usage Reports (CURs) can be generated from the management account of AWS Organizations. By centralizing this reporting in the management account, it allows for a comprehensive view of usage across all OUs and accounts within the organization. Amazon QuickSight can then be used to visualize this data, enabling each team to see their breakdown of costs in a user-friendly dashboard. This approach avoids the complexity of managing multiple CURs and offers the most straightforward and scalable solution.



A company is storing data on premises on a Windows file server. The company produces 5 GB of new data daily.

The company migrated part of its Windows-based workload to AWS and needs the data to be available on a file system in the cloud. The company already has established an AWS Direct Connect connection between the on-premises network and AWS.

Which data migration strategy should the company use?

  1. Use the file gateway option in AWS Storage Gateway to replace the existing Windows file server, and point the existing file share to the new file gateway.
  2. Use AWS DataSync to schedule a daily task to replicate data between the on-premises Windows file server and Amazon FSx.
  3. Use AWS Data Pipeline to schedule a daily task to replicate data between the on-premises Windows file server and Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS).
  4. Use AWS DataSync to schedule a daily task to replicate data between the on-premises Windows file server and Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS).

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

B) Use AWS DataSync to schedule a daily task to replicate data between the on-premises Windows file server and Amazon FSx is the correct answer. AWS DataSync is designed to automate the migration of data between on-premises systems and AWS, making it ideal for this scenario. The company already has a Direct Connect connection, and Amazon FSx provides a fully managed Windows-native file system. DataSync can be scheduled to handle the daily replication of the 5 GB of new data from the on-premises server to Amazon FSx with minimal operational overhead.



A company’s solutions architect is reviewing a web application that runs on AWS. The application references static assets in an Amazon S3 bucket in the us-east-1 Region. The company needs resiliency across multiple AWS Regions. The company already has created an S3 bucket in a second Region.

Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?

  1. Configure the application to write each object to both S3 buckets. Set up an Amazon Route 53 public hosted zone with a record set by using a weighted routing policy for each S3 bucket. Configure the application to reference the objects by using the Route 53 DNS name.
  2. Create an AWS Lambda function to copy objects from the S3 bucket in us-east-1 to the S3 bucket in the second Region. Invoke the Lambda function each time an object is written to the S3 bucket in us-east-1. Set up an Amazon CloudFront distribution with an origin group that contains the two S3 buckets as origins.
  3. Configure replication on the S3 bucket in us-east-1 to replicate objects to the S3 bucket in the second Region. Set up an Amazon CloudFront distribution with an origin group that contains the two S3 buckets as origins.
  4. Configure replication on the S3 bucket in us-east-1 to replicate objects to the S3 bucket in the second Region. If failover is required, update the application code to load S3 objects from the S3 bucket in the second Region.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

C) Configure replication on the S3 bucket in us-east-1 to replicate objects to the S3 bucket in the second Region. Set up an Amazon CloudFront distribution with an origin group that contains the two S3 buckets as origins is the correct answer because it provides resiliency across multiple Regions with minimal operational overhead. S3 replication ensures that objects are automatically copied from one Region to another, and Amazon CloudFront's origin group allows for automatic failover between the two S3 buckets. This approach ensures high availability and resilience for the web application while requiring minimal manual intervention.



A company is hosting a three-tier web application in an on-premises environment. Due to a recent surge in traffic that resulted in downtime and a significant financial impact, company management has ordered that the application be moved to AWS. The application is written in .NET and has a dependency on a MySQL database. A solutions architect must design a scalable and highly available solution to meet the demand of 200,000 daily users.

Which steps should the solutions architect take to design an appropriate solution?

  1. Use AWS Elastic Beanstalk to create a new application with a web server environment and an Amazon RDS MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance. The environment should launch a Network Load Balancer (NLB) in front of an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group in multiple Availability Zones. Use an Amazon Route 53 alias record to route traffic from the company’s domain to the NLB.
  2. Use AWS CloudFormation to launch a stack containing an Application Load Balancer (ALB) in front of an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group spanning three Availability Zones. The stack should launch a Multi-AZ deployment of an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster with a Retain deletion policy. Use an Amazon Route 53 alias record to route traffic from the company’s domain to the AL
  3. Use AWS Elastic Beanstalk to create an automatically scaling web server environment that spans two separate Regions with an Application Load Balancer (ALB) in each Region. Create a Multi-AZ deployment of an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster with a cross-Region read replica. Use Amazon Route 53 with a geoproximity routing policy to route traffic between the two Regions.
  4. Use AWS CloudFormation to launch a stack containing an Application Load Balancer (ALB) in front of an Amazon ECS cluster of Spot instances spanning three Availability Zones. The stack should launch an Amazon RDS MySQL DB instance with a Snapshot deletion policy. Use an Amazon Route 53 alias record to route traffic from the company’s domain to the ALB.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

B) Use AWS CloudFormation to launch a stack containing an Application Load Balancer (ALB) in front of an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group spanning three Availability Zones. The stack should launch a Multi-AZ deployment of an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster with a Retain deletion policy. Use an Amazon Route 53 alias record to route traffic from the company’s domain to the ALB is the correct solution because it provides a scalable and highly available architecture with minimal downtime risk. The Auto Scaling group and Application Load Balancer ensure the web application can handle variable traffic loads, while Amazon Aurora MySQL provides high availability and performance with Multi-AZ deployment. Using AWS CloudFormation helps automate the setup and configuration, and Route 53 ensures smooth routing of traffic to the application.



A company is using AWS Organizations to manage multiple AWS accounts. For security purposes, the company requires the creation of an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic that enables integration with a third-party alerting system in all the Organizations member accounts.

A solutions architect used an AWS CloudFormation template to create the SNS topic and stack sets to automate the deployment of CloudFormation stacks. Trusted access has been enabled in Organizations.

What should the solutions architect do to deploy the CloudFormation StackSets in all AWS accounts?

  1. Create a stack set in the Organizations member accounts. Use service-managed permissions. Set deployment options to deploy to an organization. Use CloudFormation StackSets drift detection.
  2. Create stacks in the Organizations member accounts. Use self-service permissions. Set deployment options to deploy to an organization. Enable the CloudFormation StackSets automatic deployment.
  3. Create a stack set in the Organizations management account. Use service-managed permissions. Set deployment options to deploy to the organization. Enable CloudFormation StackSets automatic deployment.
  4. Create stacks in the Organizations management account. Use service-managed permissions. Set deployment options to deploy to the organization. Enable CloudFormation StackSets drift detection.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

C) Create a stack set in the Organizations management account. Use service-managed permissions. Set deployment options to deploy to the organization. Enable CloudFormation StackSets automatic deployment is the correct answer because it leverages CloudFormation StackSets with service-managed permissions to automatically deploy resources, such as the SNS topic, across all member accounts in AWS Organizations. This setup enables centralized management from the management account, and automatic deployment ensures that the resources are consistently created in all member accounts, meeting the security and integration requirements for the third-party alerting system.



A company wants to migrate its workloads from on premises to AWS. The workloads run on Linux and Windows. The company has a large on-premises infrastructure that consists of physical machines and VMs that host numerous applications.

The company must capture details about the system configuration, system performance, running processes, and network connections of its on-premises workloads. The company also must divide the on-premises applications into groups for AWS migrations. The company needs recommendations for Amazon EC2 instance types so that the company can run its workloads on AWS in the most cost-effective manner.

Which combination of steps should a solutions architect take to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

  1. Assess the existing applications by installing AWS Application Discovery Agent on the physical machines and VMs.
  2. Assess the existing applications by installing AWS Systems Manager Agent on the physical machines and VMs.
  3. Group servers into applications for migration by using AWS Systems Manager Application Manager.
  4. Group servers into applications for migration by using AWS Migration Hub.
  5. Generate recommended instance types and associated costs by using AWS Migration Hub.
  6. Import data about server sizes into AWS Trusted Advisor. Follow the recommendations for cost optimization.

Answer(s): A,D,E

Explanation:

A) Assess the existing applications by installing AWS Application Discovery Agent on the physical machines and VMs,
D) Group servers into applications for migration by using AWS Migration Hub, and
E) Generate recommended instance types and associated costs by using AWS Migration Hub are the correct answers.

AWS Application Discovery Service with the Application Discovery Agent collects detailed information on system configuration, performance, running processes, and network connections from the physical and virtual machines.
AWS Migration Hub helps group servers into applications, simplifying migration tracking and management. It also provides EC2 instance type recommendations based on the collected data for a cost-effective migration strategy.
This combination ensures detailed system discovery, efficient grouping, and cost-optimized EC2 instance recommendations.



A company is hosting an image-processing service on AWS in a VPC. The VPC extends across two Availability Zones. Each Availability Zone contains one public subnet and one private subnet.

The service runs on Amazon EC2 instances in the private subnets. An Application Load Balancer in the public subnets is in front of the service. The service needs to communicate with the internet and does so through two NAT gateways. The service uses Amazon S3 for image storage. The EC2 instances retrieve approximately 1 ТВ of data from an S3 bucket each day.

The company has promoted the service as highly secure. A solutions architect must reduce cloud expenditures as much as possible without compromising the service’s security posture or increasing the time spent on ongoing operations.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Replace the NAT gateways with NAT instances. In the VPC route table, create a route from the private subnets to the NAT instances.
  2. Move the EC2 instances to the public subnets. Remove the NAT gateways.
  3. Set up an S3 gateway VPC endpoint in the VP Attach an endpoint policy to the endpoint to allow the required actions on the S3 bucket.
  4. Attach an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) volume to the EC2 instances. Host the images on the EFS volume.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

C) Set up an S3 gateway VPC endpoint in the VPC. Attach an endpoint policy to the endpoint to allow the required actions on the S3 bucket is the correct answer.

Using an S3 gateway VPC endpoint allows EC2 instances in the private subnets to communicate with Amazon S3 directly without needing to route traffic through the NAT gateways, thus reducing the data transfer costs associated with the NAT gateways. Since the traffic does not leave the AWS network, this solution also enhances security. This solution reduces costs without compromising security or requiring significant ongoing maintenance efforts.



A company recently deployed an application on AWS. The application uses Amazon DynamoDB. The company measured the application load and configured the RCUs and WCUs on the DynamoDB table to match the expected peak load. The peak load occurs once a week for a 4-hour period and is double the average load. The application load is close to the average load for the rest of the week. The access pattern includes many more writes to the table than reads of the table.

A solutions architect needs to implement a solution to minimize the cost of the table.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Use AWS Application Auto Scaling to increase capacity during the peak period. Purchase reserved RCUs and WCUs to match the average load.
  2. Configure on-demand capacity mode for the table.
  3. Configure DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) in front of the table. Reduce the provisioned read capacity to match the new peak load on the table.
  4. Configure DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) in front of the table. Configure on-demand capacity mode for the table.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A) Use AWS Application Auto Scaling to increase capacity during the peak period. Purchase reserved RCUs and WCUs to match the average load is the correct answer because AWS Application Auto Scaling allows you to adjust capacity automatically during peak periods. By purchasing reserved RCUs and WCUs for the average load, you can save on costs during the non-peak times while dynamically scaling the capacity to handle the peak load, which happens once a week. This approach minimizes the cost by optimizing for the typical load and scaling only when needed.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

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