Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate SAA-C03 SAA-C02 Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon SAA-C02 Real Questions (page: 21)

A company has a small Python application that processes JSON documents and outputs the results to an on-premises SQL database. The application runs thousands of times each day. The company wants to move the application to the AWS Cloud. The company needs a highly available solution that maximizes scalability and minimizes operational overhead.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Place the JSON documents in an Amazon S3 bucket. Run the Python code on multiple Amazon EC2 instances to process the documents. Store the results in an Amazon Aurora DB cluster.
  2. Place the JSON documents in an Amazon S3 bucket. Create an AWS Lambda function that runs the Python code to process the documents as they arrive in the S3 bucket. Store the results in an Amazon Aurora DB cluster.
  3. Place the JSON documents in an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume. Use the EBS Multi-Attach feature to attach the volume to multiple Amazon EC2 instances. Run the Python code on the EC2 instances to process the documents. Store the results on an Amazon RDS DB instance.
  4. Place the JSON documents in an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue as messages. Deploy the Python code as a container on an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster that is configured with the Amazon EC2 launch type. Use the container to process the SQS messages. Store the results on an Amazon RDS DB instance.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The correct answer is B because using S3 with a Lambda function provides serverless, highly available, and scalable processing as events arrive, with minimal operational overhead; the Python code runs in managed Lambda execution environments and results can be stored in Aurora for relational queries.
A) While scalable, EC2-based processing requires managing instances and scaling, increasing operational overhead compared to Lambda.
C) EBS Multi-Attach is for shared block storage, not ideal for stateless serverless processing; EC2 management and availability concerns remain.
D) ECS with EC2 requires cluster management and scaling; SQS decoupling adds latency and operational overhead versus a direct Lambda-triggered workflow.



A company wants to use high performance computing (HPC) infrastructure on AWS for financial risk modeling. The company’s HPC workloads run on Linux. Each HPC workflow runs on hundreds of Amazon EC2 Spot Instances, is short-lived, and generates thousands of output files that are ultimately stored in persistent storage for analytics and long-term future use.
The company seeks a cloud storage solution that permits the copying of on-premises data to long-term persistent storage to make data available for processing by all EC2 instances. The solution should also be a high performance file system that is integrated with persistent storage to read and write datasets and output files.
Which combination of AWS services meets these requirements?

  1. Amazon FSx for Lustre integrated with Amazon S3
  2. Amazon FSx for Windows File Server integrated with Amazon S3
  3. Amazon S3 Glacier integrated with Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
  4. Amazon S3 bucket with a VPC endpoint integrated with an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) General Purpose SSD (gp2) volume

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Amazon FSx for Lustre integrated with Amazon S3 provides a high-performance parallel file system (Lustre) for HPC workloads and can automatically link with S3 for persistent storage, enabling on-demand data ingest from on-premises and long-term storage with parallel read/write across hundreds of EC2 Spot Instances.
A) Correct. FSx for Lustre + S3 offers HPC-optimized throughput, Lustre metadata management, and scalable storage with durable S3 backing.
B) FSx for Windows File Server is a Windows-based file system, not optimized for Linux HPC workloads and Lustre-like performance.
C) S3 Glacier is archival storage with retrieval delays, not a high-performance file system for HPC read/write workloads.
D) S3 with EBS gp2 is not a unified HPC file system; lacks built-in parallel file system semantics and seamless on-demand data ingest from on-premises.



A company is building a containerized application on premises and decides to move the application to AWS. The application will have thousands of users soon after it is deployed. The company is unsure how to manage the deployment of containers at scale. The company needs to deploy the containerized application in a highly available architecture that minimizes operational overhead.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Store container images in an Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR) repository. Use an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster with the AWS Fargate launch type to run the containers. Use target tracking to scale automatically based on demand.
  2. Store container images in an Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR) repository. Use an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster with the Amazon EC2 launch type to run the containers. Use target tracking to scale automatically based on demand.
  3. Store container images in a repository that runs on an Amazon EC2 instance. Run the containers on EC2 instances that are spread across multiple Availability Zones. Monitor the average CPU utilization in Amazon CloudWatch. Launch new EC2 instances as needed.
  4. Create an Amazon EC2 Amazon Machine Image (AMI) that contains the container image. Launch EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. Use an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to scale out EC2 instances when the average CPU utilization threshold is breached.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

AWS Fargate with ECS provides a serverless, highly available, and low-operational-overhead container deployment that scales automatically based on demand, without managing underlying EC2 instances. A uses ECR+ECS with Fargate and target tracking, meeting HA and scalability with minimal ops.
B uses ECS with EC2 launch type, which requires managing EC2 instances, increasing operational overhead.
C relies on self-managed EC2 scaling and manual capacity planning, increasing complexity and maintenance.
D uses traditional EC2 AMIs and Auto Scaling groups, which involves more management and less abstraction for containerized workloads.



A company has two applications: a sender application that sends messages with payloads to be processed and a processing application intended to receive the messages with payloads. The company wants to implement an AWS service to handle messages between the two applications. The sender application can send about 1,000 messages each hour. The messages may take up to 2 days to be processed: If the messages fail to process, they must be retained so that they do not impact the processing of any remaining messages.
Which solution meets these requirements and is the MOST operationally efficient?

  1. Set up an Amazon EC2 instance running a Redis database. Configure both applications to use the instance. Store, process, and delete the messages, respectively.
  2. Use an Amazon Kinesis data stream to receive the messages from the sender application. Integrate the processing application with the Kinesis Client Library (KCL).
  3. Integrate the sender and processor applications with an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. Configure a dead-letter queue to collect the messages that failed to process.
  4. Subscribe the processing application to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to receive notifications to process. Integrate the sender application to write to the SNS topic.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

SQS with a standard queue and a dead-letter queue meets the throughput, message retention (up to 14 days by default, configurable), and exactly-once-like processing guarantees via idempotent processing, while decoupling sender and processor for operational efficiency.
A) EC2/Redis requires managing infrastructure, does not guarantee durable retention or message processing semantics, and adds operational burden.
B) Kinesis is streaming with limited message retention (default 24 hours, extended) and higher complexity; not ideal for per-message retry/dead-letter semantics.
D) SNS is pub/sub, not a durable queue; messages may be lost if no subscribers, and it lacks robust retry/dead-letter semantics for processing failures.



A solutions architect must design a solution that uses Amazon CloudFront with an Amazon S3 origin to store a static website. The company’s security policy requires that all website traffic be inspected by AWS WAF.
How should the solutions architect comply with these requirements?

  1. Configure an S3 bucket policy to accept requests coming from the AWS WAF Amazon Resource Name (ARN) only.
  2. Configure Amazon CloudFront to forward all incoming requests to AWS WAF before requesting content from the S3 origin.
  3. Configure a security group that allows Amazon CloudFront IP addresses to access Amazon S3 only. Associate AWS WAF to CloudFront.
  4. Configure Amazon CloudFront and Amazon S3 to use an origin access identity (OAI) to restrict access to the S3 bucket. Enable AWS WAF on the distribution.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

CloudFront with an origin access identity (OAI) ensures CloudFront is the sole requester to S3, preventing direct S3 access, while enabling WAF to inspect traffic at the CloudFront distribution.
A) S3 bucket policy with WAF ARN does not integrate WAF inspection on requests; WAF sits in front of CloudFront, not via S3 bucket policy.
B) WAF is associated with CloudFront, but you don’t forward requests to WAF before S3; WAF sits at the edge in front of CloudFront, not between CloudFront and S3.
C) Security groups and CloudFront IPs are not applicable to S3 access control; WAF attachment is on CloudFront, not via SGs.



Organizers for a global event want to put daily reports online as static HTML pages. The pages are expected to generate millions of views from users around the world. The files are stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. A solutions architect has been asked to design an efficient and effective solution.
Which action should the solutions architect take to accomplish this?

  1. Generate presigned URLs for the files.
  2. Use cross-Region replication to all Regions.
  3. Use the geoproximity feature of Amazon Route 53.
  4. Use Amazon CloudFront with the S3 bucket as its origin.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Using Amazon CloudFront with the S3 bucket as its origin provides a global content delivery network that caches static HTML and serves from edge locations worldwide, reducing latency and handling high request volumes efficiently.
A) Presigned URLs are for time-limited access control, not for global caching or performance of static pages.
B) Cross-Region replication copies data between buckets, not performance or global delivery for static content.
C) Route 53 geoproximity affects DNS routing, but does not optimize content delivery or caching for static hosting.
D) Correct: CloudFront edge caching and low-latency delivery from edge locations best meets the requirements.



A company runs a production application on a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances. The application reads the data from an Amazon SQS queue and processes the messages in parallel. The message volume is unpredictable and often has intermittent traffic. This application should continually process messages without any downtime.
Which solution meets these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

  1. Use Spot Instances exclusively to handle the maximum capacity required.
  2. Use Reserved Instances exclusively to handle the maximum capacity required.
  3. Use Reserved Instances for the baseline capacity and use Spot Instances to handle additional capacity.
  4. Use Reserved Instances for the baseline capacity and use On-Demand Instances to handle additional capacity.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Using Reserved Instances for baseline capacity provides cost savings for steady-state load, while On-Demand instances cover variable, unpredictable spikes without long-term commitment, ensuring continuous processing without downtime at the lowest overall cost for variable traffic.
A) Incorrect: Spot Instances are cost-effective but can interrupt, risking downtime for production processing.
B) Incorrect: Reserved Instances alone fix capacity and can lead to idle or insufficient capacity during spikes; not cost-optimal for variable traffic.
C) Incorrect: Mixing RI with Spot can risk interruption during spikes and adds complexity; Spot interruptions may cause downtime, not ideal for continuous processing.
D) Correct: Baseline with RI plus On-Demand for variability balances cost and reliability for unpredictable queue-driven load.



A security team wants to limit access to specific services or actions in all of the team’s AWS accounts. All accounts belong to a large organization in AWS Organizations. The solution must be scalable and there must be a single point where permissions can be maintained.
What should a solutions architect do to accomplish this?

  1. Create an ACL to provide access to the services or actions.
  2. Create a security group to allow accounts and attach it to user groups.
  3. Create cross-account roles in each account to deny access to the services or actions.
  4. Create a service control policy in the root organizational unit to deny access to the services or actions.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A single Service Control Policy (SCP) in the Organizations root OU provides centralized, scalable permission boundaries for all member accounts, enforcing deny/allow across the entire organization. This is the correct approach for a single-point-of-maintenance solution. A) ACLs are not applicable to AWS service permissions at scale across accounts. B) Security groups control network traffic, not IAM permissions across accounts. C) Cross-account roles would require configuring in each account and do not provide centralized policy enforcement. D) SCPs are the correct, scalable mechanism for centralized permission control in AWS Organizations.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

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Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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Adekunle willaims
6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

How reliable and relevant are these questions?? also i can see the last update here was January and definitely new questions would have emerged.

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