Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 DOP-C02 Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon DOP-C02 Real Questions (page: 11)

A company manages an application that stores logs in Amazon CloudWatch Logs. The company wants to archive the logs to an Amazon S3 bucket. Logs are rarely accessed after 90 days and must be retained for 10 years.

Which combination of steps should a DevOps engineer take to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

  1. Configure a CloudWatch Logs subscription filter to use AWS Glue to transfer all logs to an S3 bucket.
  2. Configure a CloudWatch Logs subscription filter to use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream all logs to an S3 bucket.
  3. Configure a CloudWatch Logs subscription filter to stream all logs to an S3 bucket.
  4. Configure the S3 bucket lifecycle policy to transition logs to S3 Glacier after 90 days and to expire logs after 3,650 days.
  5. Configure the S3 bucket lifecycle policy to transition logs to Reduced Redundancy after 90 days and to expire logs after 3,650 days.

Answer(s): B,D



A company is developing a new application. The application uses AWS Lambda functions for its compute tier. The company must use a canary deployment for any changes to the Lambda functions. Automated rollback must occur if any failures are reported.

The company's DevOps team needs to create the infrastructure as code (IaC) and the CI/CD pipeline for this solution.

Which combination of steps will meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

  1. Create an AWS CloudFormation template for the application. Define each Lambda function in the template
    by using the AWS::Lambda::Function resource type. In the template, include a version for the Lambda function by using the AWS::Lambda::Version resource type. Declare the CodeSha256 property. Configure an AWS::Lambda::Alias resource that references the latest version of the Lambda function.
  2. Create an AWS Serverless Application Model (AWS SAM) template for the application. Define each Lambda function in the template by using the AWS::Serverless::Function resource type. For each function, include configurations for the AutoPublishAlias property and the DeploymentPreference property. Configure the deployment configuration type to LambdaCanary10Percent10Minutes.
  3. Create an AWS CodeCommit repository. Create an AWS CodePipeline pipeline. Use the CodeCommit repository in a new source stage that starts the pipeline. Create an AWS CodeBuild project to deploy the AWS Serverless Application Model (AWS SAM) template. Upload the template and source code to the CodeCommit repository. In the CodeCommit repository, create a buildspec.yml file that includes the commands to build and deploy the SAM application.
  4. Create an AWS CodeCommit repository. Create an AWS CodePipeline pipeline. Use the CodeCommit repository in a new source stage that starts the pipeline. Create an AWS CodeDeploy deployment group that is configured for canary deployments with a DeploymentPreference type of Canary10Percent10Minutes. Upload the AWS CloudFormation template and source code to the CodeCommit repository. In the CodeCommit repository, create an appspec.yml file that includes the commands to deploy the CloudFormation template.
  5. Create an Amazon CloudWatch composite alarm for all the Lambda functions. Configure an evaluation period and dimensions for Lambda. Configure the alarm to enter the ALARM state if any errors are detected or if there is insufficient data.
  6. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for each Lambda function. Configure the alarms to enter the ALARM state if any errors are detected. Configure an evaluation period, dimensions for each Lambda function and version, and the namespace as AWS/Lambda on the Errors metric.

Answer(s): B,C,F



A DevOps engineer is deploying a new version of a company's application in an AWS CodeDeploy deployment group associated with its Amazon EC2 instances. After some time, the deployment fails. The engineer realizes that all the events associated with the specific deployment ID are in a Skipped status, and code was not deployed in the instances associated with the deployment group.

What are valid reasons for this failure? (Choose two.)

  1. The networking configuration does not allow the EC2 instances to reach the internet via a NAT gateway or internet gateway, and the CodeDeploy endpoint cannot be reached.
  2. The IAM user who triggered the application deployment does not have permission to interact with the CodeDeploy endpoint.
  3. The target EC2 instances were not properly registered with the CodeDeploy endpoint.
  4. An instance profile with proper permissions was not attached to the target EC2 instances.
  5. The appspec.yml file was not included in the application revision.

Answer(s): A,D



A company has a guideline that every Amazon EC2 instance must be launched from an AMI that the company's security team produces. Every month, the security team sends an email message with the latest approved AMIs to all the development teams.

The development teams use AWS CloudFormation to deploy their applications. When developers launch a new

service, they have to search their email for the latest AMIs that the security department sent. A DevOps engineer wants to automate the process that the security team uses to provide the AMI IDs to the development teams.

What is the MOST scalable solution that meets these requirements?

  1. Direct the security team to use CloudFormation to create new versions of the AMIs and to list the AMI ARNs in an encrypted Amazon S3 object as part of the stack's Outputs section. Instruct the developers to use a cross-stack reference to load the encrypted S3 object and obtain the most recent AMI ARNs.
  2. Direct the security team to use a CloudFormation stack to create an AWS CodePipeline pipeline that builds new AMIs and places the latest AMI ARNs in an encrypted Amazon S3 object as part of the pipeline output.
    Instruct the developers to use a cross-stack reference within their own CloudFormation template to obtain the S3 object location and the most recent AMI ARNs.
  3. Direct the security team to use Amazon EC2 Image Builder to create new AMIs and to place the AMI ARNs as parameters in AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store. Instruct the developers to specify a parameter of type SSM in their CloudFormation stack to obtain the most recent AMI ARNs from Parameter Store.
  4. Direct the security team to use Amazon EC2 Image Builder to create new AMIs and to create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic so that every development team can receive notifications.
    When the development teams receive a notification, instruct them to write an AWS Lambda function that will update their CloudFormation stack with the most recent AMI ARNs.

Answer(s): C



An application runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). A DevOps engineer is using AWS CodeDeploy to release a new version. The deployment fails during the AllowTraffic lifecycle event, but a cause for the failure is not indicated in the deployment logs.

What would cause this?

  1. The appspec.yml file contains an invalid script that runs in the AllowTraffic lifecycle hook.
  2. The user who initiated the deployment does not have the necessary permissions to interact with the AL
  3. The health checks specified for the ALB target group are misconfigured.
  4. The CodeDeploy agent was not installed in the EC2 instances that are part of the ALB target group.

Answer(s): C



A company has 20 service teams. Each service team is responsible for its own microservice. Each service team uses a separate AWS account for its microservice and a VPC with the 192.168.0.0/22 CIDR block. The company manages the AWS accounts with AWS Organizations.

Each service team hosts its microservice on multiple Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The microservices communicate with each other across the public internet. The company's security team has issued a new guideline that all communication between microservices must use HTTPS over private network connections and cannot traverse the public internet.

A DevOps engineer must implement a solution that fulfills these obligations and minimizes the number of changes for each service team.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Create a new AWS account in AWS Organizations. Create a VPC in this account, and use AWS Resource Access Manager to share the private subnets of this VPC with the organization. Instruct the service teams to launch a new Network Load Balancer (NLB) and EC2 instances that use the shared private subnets. Use the NLB DNS names for communication between microservices.
  2. Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) in each of the microservice VPCs. Use AWS PrivateLink to create VPC endpoints in each AWS account for the NLBs. Create subscriptions to each VPC endpoint in each of the other AWS accounts. Use the VPC endpoint DNS names for communication between microservices.
  3. Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) in each of the microservice VPCs. Create VPC peering connections between each of the microservice VPCs. Update the route tables for each VPC to use the peering links.
    Use the NLB DNS names for communication between microservices.
  4. Create a new AWS account in AWS Organizations. Create a transit gateway in this account, and use AWS Resource Access Manager to share the transit gateway with the organization. In each of the microservice VPCs, create a transit gateway attachment to the shared transit gateway. Update the route tables of each VPC to use the transit gateway. Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB) in each of the microservice VPCs.
    Use the NLB DNS names for communication between microservices.

Answer(s): B



An Amazon EC2 instance is running in a VPC and needs to download an object from a restricted Amazon S3 bucket. When the DevOps engineer tries to download the object, an AccessDenied error is received.

What are the possible causes for this error? (Choose two.)

  1. The S3 bucket default encryption is enabled.
  2. There is an error in the S3 bucket policy.
  3. The object has been moved to S3 Glacier.
  4. There is an error in the IAM role configuration.
  5. S3 Versioning is enabled.

Answer(s): B,D



A company wants to use a grid system for a proprietary enterprise in-memory data store on top of AWS. This system can run in multiple server nodes in any Linux-based distribution. The system must be able to reconfigure the entire cluster every time a node is added or removed. When adding or removing nodes, an /etc/ cluster/nodes.config file must be updated, listing the IP addresses of the current node members of that cluster.

The company wants to automate the task of adding new nodes to a cluster.

What can a DevOps engineer do to meet these requirements?

  1. Use AWS OpsWorks Stacks to layer the server nodes of that cluster. Create a Chef recipe that populates the content of the /etc/cluster/nodes.config file and restarts the service by using the current members of the layer. Assign that recipe to the Configure lifecycle event.
  2. Put the file nodes.config in version control. Create an AWS CodeDeploy deployment configuration and deployment group based on an Amazon EC2 tag value for the cluster nodes. When adding a new node to the cluster, update the file with all tagged instances, and make a commit in version control. Deploy the new file and restart the services.
  3. Create an Amazon S3 bucket and upload a version of the /etc/cluster/nodes.config file. Create a crontab script that will poll for that S3 file and download it frequently. Use a process manager, such as Monit or
    systemd, to restart the cluster services when it detects that the new file was modified. When adding a node to the cluster, edit the file's most recent members. Upload the new file to the S3 bucket.
  4. Create a user data script that lists all members of the current security group of the cluster and automatically updates the /etc/cluster/nodes.config file whenever a new instance is added to the cluster.

Answer(s): A



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

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AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

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AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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