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Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional SAP-C02 AWS-SOLUTIONS-ARCHITECT-PROFESSIONAL Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon AWS-SOLUTIONS-ARCHITECT-PROFESSIONAL Real Questions (page: 66)

AWS-SOLUTIONS-ARCHITECT-PROFESSIONAL PDF — 533 Questions

A company has introduced a new policy that allows employees to work remotely from their homes if they connect by using a VPN. The company is hosting internal applications with VPCs in multiple AWS accounts. Currently, the applications are accessible from the company's on-premises office network through an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection. The VPC in the company's main AWS account has peering connections established with VPCs in other AWS accounts.

A solutions architect must design a scalable AWS Client VPN solution for employees to use while they work from home.

What is the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements?

  1. Create a Client VPN endpoint in each AWS account. Configure required routing that allows access to internal applications.
  2. Create a Client VPN endpoint in the main AWS account. Configure required routing that allows access to internal applications.
  3. Create a Client VPN endpoint in the main AWS account. Provision a transit gateway that is connected to each AWS account. Configure required routing that allows access to internal applications.
  4. Create a Client VPN endpoint in the main AWS account. Establish connectivity between the Client VPN endpoint and the AWS Site-to-Site VPN.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

B) Create a Client VPN endpoint in the main AWS account. Configure required routing that allows access to internal applications.

Creating a Client VPN endpoint in the main AWS account is the most cost-effective solution because it centralizes the VPN management while allowing remote employees to access internal applications hosted across multiple VPCs. By configuring the necessary routing, employees can connect securely to the applications without needing multiple VPN endpoints in each account, reducing both complexity and cost. This setup leverages the existing infrastructure efficiently while ensuring scalability as more users connect remotely.



A company is running an application in the AWS Cloud. Recent application metrics show inconsistent response times and a significant increase in error rates. Calls to third-party services are causing the delays. Currently, the application calls third-party services synchronously by directly invoking an AWS Lambda function.

A solutions architect needs to decouple the third-party service calls and ensure that all the calls are eventually completed.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Use an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue to store events and invoke the Lambda function.
  2. Use an AWS Step Functions state machine to pass events to the Lambda function.
  3. Use an Amazon EventBridge rule to pass events to the Lambda function.
  4. Use an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to store events and Invoke the Lambda function.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A) Use an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue to store events and invoke the Lambda function.

Using Amazon SQS allows the application to decouple the calls to third-party services, which helps in managing inconsistent response times and reducing error rates. By placing the service calls in an SQS queue, the application can continue processing other tasks while the Lambda function retrieves and processes the messages asynchronously. This design ensures that all calls to third-party services are eventually completed, even if there are temporary issues, thus enhancing the overall reliability and performance of the application.



A company is running applications on AWS in a multi-account environment. The company's sales team and marketing team use separate AWS accounts in AWS Organizations.

The sales team stores petabytes of data in an Amazon S3 bucket. The marketing team uses Amazon QuickSight for data visualizations. The marketing team needs access to data that the sates team stores in the S3 bucket. The company has encrypted the S3 bucket with an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) key. The marketing team has already created the IAM service role for QuickSight to provide QuickSight access in the marketing AWS account. The company needs a solution that will provide secure access to the data in the S3 bucket across AWS accounts.

Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?

  1. Create a new S3 bucket in the marketing account. Create an S3 replication rule in the sales account to copy the objects to the new S3 bucket in the marketing account. Update the QuickSight permissions in the marketing account to grant access to the new S3 bucket.
  2. Create an SCP to grant access to the S3 bucket to the marketing account. Use AWS Resource Access Manager (AWS RAM) to share the KMS key from the sates account with the marketing account. Update the QuickSight permissions in the marketing account to grant access to the S3 bucket.
  3. Update the S3 bucket policy in the marketing account to grant access to the QuickSight role. Create a KMS grant for the encryption key that is used in the S3 bucket. Grant decrypt access to the QuickSight role. Update the QuickSight permissions in the marketing account to grant access to the S3 bucket.
  4. Create an IAM role in the sales account and grant access to the S3 bucket. From the marketing account, assume the IAM role in the sales account to access the S3 bucket. Update the QuickSight rote, to create a trust relationship with the new IAM role in the sales account.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

D) Create an IAM role in the sales account and grant access to the S3 bucket. From the marketing account, assume the IAM role in the sales account to access the S3 bucket. Update the QuickSight role to create a trust relationship with the new IAM role in the sales account.

This solution allows the marketing team to access the S3 bucket in the sales account securely without duplicating data or creating additional complexities. By creating an IAM role in the sales account that has permissions to access the S3 bucket and allowing the marketing account to assume that role, the company maintains a single source of truth for the data and leverages IAM roles for secure cross-account access. Additionally, this method requires minimal operational overhead since it does not involve data replication or the need for complex configurations.



A company is planning to migrate its business-critical applications from an on-premises data center to AWS. The company has an on-premises installation of a Microsoft SQL Server Always On cluster. The company wants to migrate to an AWS managed database service. A solutions architect must design a heterogeneous database migration on AWS.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Migrate the SQL Server databases to Amazon RDS for MySQL by using backup and restore utilities.
  2. Use an AWS Snowball Edge Storage Optimized device to transfer data to Amazon S3. Set up Amazon RDS for MySQL. Use S3 integration with SQL Server features, such as BULK INSERT.
  3. Use the AWS Schema Conversion Tool to translate the database schema to Amazon RDS for MySQL. Then use AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) to migrate the data from on-premises databases to Amazon RDS.
  4. Use AWS DataSync to migrate data over the network between on-premises storage and Amazon S3. Set up Amazon RDS for MySQL. Use S3 integration with SQL Server features, such as BULK INSERT.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

C) Use the AWS Schema Conversion Tool to translate the database schema to Amazon RDS for MySQL. Then use AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) to migrate the data from on-premises databases to Amazon RDS.

This solution effectively addresses the requirement for a heterogeneous database migration from Microsoft SQL Server to Amazon RDS for MySQL. The AWS Schema Conversion Tool helps to convert the database schema from SQL Server to the MySQL format, ensuring compatibility. AWS DMS then facilitates the data migration while minimizing downtime, as it can replicate ongoing changes from the source database to the target. This approach is suitable for business-critical applications, providing a seamless transition with the necessary tools to manage schema changes and data migration efficiently.



A publishing company's design team updates the icons and other static assets that an ecommerce web application uses. The company serves the icons and assets from an Amazon S3 bucket that is hosted in the company's production account. The company also uses a development account that members of the design team can access.

After the design team tests the static assets in the development account, the design team needs to load the assets into the S3 bucket in the production account. A solutions architect must provide the design team with access to the production account without exposing other parts of the web application to the risk of unwanted changes.

Which combination of steps will meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

  1. In the production account, create a new IAM policy that allows read and write access to the S3 bucket.
  2. In the development account, create a new IAM policy that allows read and write access to the S3 bucket.
  3. In the production account, create a role Attach the new policy to the role. Define the development account as a trusted entity.
  4. In the development account, create a role. Attach the new policy to the role Define the production account as a trusted entity.
  5. In the development account, create a group that contains all the IAM users of the design team Attach a different IAM policy to the group to allow the sts:AssumeRole action on the role In the production account.
  6. In the development account, create a group that contains all the IAM users of the design team Attach a different IAM policy to the group to allow the sts:AssumeRole action on the role in the development account.

Answer(s): A,C,E

Explanation:

A) In the production account, create a new IAM policy that allows read and write access to the S3 bucket.
This policy ensures that the design team can interact with the specific S3 bucket where the static assets are stored, allowing them to upload new assets and manage existing ones without affecting other resources in the production account.

C) In the production account, create a role. Attach the new policy to the role. Define the development account as a trusted entity.
Creating a role in the production account with the necessary permissions and defining the development account as a trusted entity allows users from the development account to assume this role and gain temporary access to the S3 bucket.

E) In the development account, create a group that contains all the IAM users of the design team. Attach a different IAM policy to the group to allow the sts
action on the role in the production account.
This step allows the design team members in the development account to assume the role created in the production account, enabling them to perform actions on the S3 bucket without directly granting them access to the production account.

Together, these steps create a secure and controlled access mechanism for the design team, allowing them to manage static assets while minimizing risks to other parts of the production environment.



A company developed a pilot application by using AWS Elastic Beanstalk and Java. To save costs during development, the company's development team deployed the application into a single-instance environment. Recent tests indicate that the application consumes more CPU than expected. CPU utilization is regularly greater than 85%, which causes some performance bottlenecks.

A solutions architect must mitigate the performance issues before the company launches the application to production.

Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?

  1. Create a new Elastic Beanstalk application. Select a load-balanced environment type. Select all Availability Zones. Add a scale-out rule that will run if the maximum CPU utilization is over 85% for 5 minutes.
  2. Create a second Elastic Beanstalk environment. Apply the traffic-splitting deployment policy. Specify a percentage of incoming traffic to direct to the new environment in the average CPU utilization is over 85% for 5 minutes.
  3. Modify the existing environment’s capacity configuration to use a load-balanced environment type. Select all Availability Zones. Add a scale-out rule that will run if the average CPU utilization is over 85% for 5 minutes.
  4. Select the Rebuild environment action with the load balancing option. Select an Availability Zones. Add a scale-out rule that will run if the sum CPU utilization is over 85% for 5 minutes.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

C) Modify the existing environment’s capacity configuration to use a load-balanced environment type. Select all Availability Zones. Add a scale-out rule that will run if the average CPU utilization is over 85% for 5 minutes.
This option allows the existing Elastic Beanstalk application to scale horizontally by adding more instances when CPU utilization exceeds 85%. It leverages Elastic Beanstalk's built-in capabilities to manage scaling and load balancing with minimal operational overhead. By modifying the current environment instead of creating a new one, the solution is efficient and straightforward, allowing the development team to focus on application performance without significant changes to their deployment setup.

This approach ensures that the application can handle increased load effectively while maintaining operational simplicity.



A finance company is running its business-critical application on current-generation Linux EC2 instances. The application includes a self-managed MySQL database performing heavy I/O operations. The application is working fine to handle a moderate amount of traffic during the month. However, it slows down during the final three days of each month due to month-end reporting, even though the company is using Elastic Load Balancers and Auto Scaling within its infrastructure to meet the increased demand.

Which of the following actions would allow the database to handle the month-end load with the LEAST impact on performance?

  1. Pre-warming Elastic Load Balancers, using a bigger instance type, changing all Amazon EBS volumes to GP2 volumes.
  2. Performing a one-time migration of the database cluster to Amazon RDS, and creating several additional read replicas to handle the load during end of month.
  3. Using Amazon CloudWatch with AWS Lambda to change the type, size, or IOPS of Amazon EBS volumes in the cluster based on a specific CloudWatch metric.
  4. Replacing all existing Amazon EBS volumes with new PIOPS volumes that have the maximum available storage size and I/O per second by taking snapshots before the end of the month and reverting back afterwards.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

B) Performing a one-time migration of the database cluster to Amazon RDS, and creating several additional read replicas to handle the load during end of month.
Migrating to Amazon RDS provides several advantages, including automated management tasks such as backups, scaling, and patching, which can significantly reduce the operational burden. By creating additional read replicas, the company can distribute the read workload during peak times like month-end reporting, thus improving performance and reducing the load on the primary database instance. This approach allows for better scalability and performance optimization with minimal manual intervention and operational overhead.



A company runs a Java application that has complex dependencies on VMs that are in the company's data center. The application is stable. but the company wants to modernize the technology stack. The company wants to migrate the application to AWS and minimize the administrative overhead to maintain the servers.

Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST code changes?

  1. Migrate the application to Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) on AWS Fargate by using AWS App2Container. Store container images in Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Grant the ECS task execution role permission 10 access the ECR image repository. Configure Amazon ECS to use an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Use the ALB to interact with the application.
  2. Migrate the application code to a container that runs in AWS Lambda. Build an Amazon API Gateway REST API with Lambda integration. Use API Gateway to interact with the application.
  3. Migrate the application to Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) on EKS managed node groups by using AWS App2Container. Store container images in Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Give the EKS nodes permission to access the ECR image repository. Use Amazon API Gateway to interact with the application.
  4. Migrate the application code to a container that runs in AWS Lambda. Configure Lambda to use an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Use the ALB to interact with the application.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A) Migrate the application to Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) on AWS Fargate by using AWS App2Container. Store container images in Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Grant the ECS task execution role permission to access the ECR image repository. Configure Amazon ECS to use an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Use the ALB to interact with the application.
This solution allows for minimal code changes while modernizing the application. Using AWS App2Container facilitates the migration of the existing application to containerized environments with little effort. By leveraging Amazon ECS on AWS Fargate, the company eliminates the need to manage underlying server infrastructure, thus minimizing administrative overhead. Additionally, using an ALB provides a scalable way to handle traffic to the application, ensuring high availability.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
6/1/2026 2:03:00 AM

Question 18:
Question 18: Why not A?

  • The two recommended strategies are B and D (per the answer key):
- B: Migrate users in phases based on their functions, with parallel use of legacy and Salesforce. - D: Use a full sandbox environment and run data migration tests with real legacy data.
  • Why not A: A focuses on identifying the data to migrate and planning scripts for verifying data integrity. While important, it’s primarily a preparation/validation activity, not an active risk-mitigation step during the migration itself. The question asks for strategies that directly mitigate migration risks in practice, such as staged rollout (B) and thorough testing in a sandbox with real data (D). A does not address go-live risk, user adoption, or testing of the migration process in a controlled environment.

Melbourne, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/16/2026 7:04:20 AM

Question 4:
Question 4 is about when to use batch processing.

  • Answer key: A (the option related to “When to use batch processing”).
  • Core idea: Batch processing is used when you can tolerate some delay and don’t need results instantly. Data is collected over a period, then processed together in a batch.

Why this is correct:
  • Latencies are expected with batch jobs. The system processes data in groups rather than as soon as data arrives.
  • The processes are often not mission-critical at the exact moment they run, so delays don’t impact operations.

Key concepts to know:
  • Batch processing vs real-time processing: Batch processes collect data and run at scheduled times or when resources are available, whereas real-time processing handles data immediately.
  • When to use batch processing:
- High-volume data where immediate results aren’t required - Tasks that can be scheduled (e.g., nightly ETL, end-of-day payroll, bulk reports) - When cost or resource utilization is optimized by processing in groups
Examples: nightly data aggregation, batch payroll processing, end-of-day reconciliations.
If you want, I can walk through how to identify the right scenario for batch vs real-time in practice.

Cape Town, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/15/2026 9:49:16 AM

Question 5:
I can’t see the [Image] in Question 5, but I can explain the likely reasoning.

  • Correct components: SAS adapter and disk (options B and D).
  • Why: This question is about diagnosing a storage-path issue inside the node. The SAS adapter connects disks to the controller, and the disks themselves are where I/O problems or failures usually originate. The cluster switches and network interface cards are more related to the network path rather than the direct storage path, unless the symptom points to a network fault.

How to examine these two components:
  • SAS adapter
- Check link status and port mapping. - Verify firmware version and compatibility. - Inspect cabling to disk shelves and any expanders. - Look for adapter errors in system logs.
  • Disk
- Check health status for each disk (fail/degraded, SMART data). - Inspect LEDs on the disk and shelf. - Review reallocation, pending operations, and overall disk state with storage commands/logs. - Confirm hot spares and disk replacement readiness.
If you want, I can walk through the exact commands you’d use in ONTAP or a CLI.

Mumbai, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:59:47 AM

Question 12:
Here’s why Question 12’s correct choices are C and D.

  • C (Azure DevOps, build and upload to asset library)
- What it means: Create a deployable package from a branch in Azure DevOps, then use an LCS asset upload step to push that package into the Dynamics 365 F&O asset library. - Why it’s valid: This is a standard path to prepare and publish a deployable package to LCS for deployment.
  • D (Visual Studio, create deployment package and upload)
- What it means: Use Visual Studio to generate a Dynamics 365 deployment package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. - Why it’s valid: Visual Studio can produce the deployable package, which is what LCS expects in the asset library.
Why A and B are not correct:
  • A: Visual Studio export the project and upload to asset library
- You don’t export a project to the asset library; you export a deployable package and upload that.
  • B: Azure DevOps, queue a build and upload the model to the asset library
- The asset library stores deployable packages, not models. You upload a package, not a model.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:49:11 AM

Question 3:
Question 3 asks for two valid ways to meet the purchase order creation validation (warn if the vendor is on the exclusion list for the customer/product and block/alert accordingly).
Correct answers: C and D

  • C: In Application Explorer, create a form extension and implement validation.
- Extend the Purchase Order creation form and add validation logic (e.g., before save/submit) to check VendExclusions for the customer/item and show a warning or block the PO as needed.
  • D: Implement Chain of Command (CoC) and method wrapping by creating a form extension class.
- Use CoC to wrap the target PO creation method, perform the exclusion check after calling super(), and enforce the rule (warning or prevent creation).
Why not A or B?
  • A (class with a form data source event handler) is not the standard pattern for this UI-level validation scenario and is less direct for enforcing creation-time behavior.
  • B (table extension with validation) cannot sufficiently enforce the UI-level workflow or trigger user-facing warnings during PO creation.

So, the two valid techniques are C and D, reflecting the recommended form-extension patterns: direct form validation and CoC-based method wrapping.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

Oslo, Norway
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
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