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Amazon AWS DevOps Engineer - Professional (DOP-C02) AWS DevOps Engineer Professional Exam Questions in PDF

Free Amazon AWS DevOps Engineer Professional Dumps Questions (page: 27)

AWS DevOps Engineer Professional PDF — 429 Questions

A healthcare services company is concerned about the growing costs of software licensing for an application for monitoring patient wellness. The company wants to create an audit process to ensure that the application is running exclusively on Amazon EC2 Dedicated Hosts. A DevOps Engineer must create a work ow to audit the application to ensure compliance. What steps should the Engineer take to meet this requirement with the LEAST administrative overhead?

  1. Use AWS Systems Manager Con guration Compliance. Use calls to the put-compliance-items API action to scan and build a database of noncompliant EC2 instances based on their host placement con guration. Use an Amazon DynamoDB table to store these instance IDs for fast access. Generate a report through Systems Manager by calling the list-compliance-summaries API action.
  2. Use custom Java code running on an EC2 instance. Set up EC2 Auto Scaling for the instance depending on the number of instances to be checked. Send the list of noncompliant EC2 instance IDs to an Amazon SQS queue. Set up another worker instance to process instance IDs from the SQS queue and write them to Amazon DynamoD Use an AWS Lambda function to terminate noncompliant instance IDs obtained from the queue, and send them to an Amazon SNS email topic for distribution.
  3. Use AWS Con g. Identify all EC2 instances to be audited by enabling Con g Recording on all Amazon EC2 resources for the region. Create a custom AWS Con g rule that triggers an AWS Lambda function by using the con g-rule-change-triggered blueprint. Modify the Lambda evaluateCompliance() function to verify host placement to return a NON_COMPLIANT result if the instance is not running on an EC2 Dedicated Host. Use the AWS Con g report to address noncompliant instances.
  4. Use AWS CloudTrail. Identify all EC2 instances to be audited by analyzing all calls to the EC2 RunCommand API action. Invoke an AWS Lambda function that analyzes the host placement of the instance. Store the EC2 instance ID of noncompliant resources in an Amazon RDS MySQL DB instance. Generate a report by querying the RDS instance and exporting the query results to a CSV text le.

Answer(s): C



A company has 100 GB of log data in an Amazon S3 bucket stored in .csv format. SQL developers want to query this data and generate graphs to visualize it.
They also need an e cient, automated way to store metadata from the .csv le. Which combination of steps should be taken to meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of effort? (Choose three.)

  1. Filter the data through AWS X-Ray to visualize the data.
  2. Filter the data through Amazon QuickSight to visualize the data.
  3. Query the data with Amazon Athena.
  4. Query the data with Amazon Redshift.
  5. Use AWS Glue as the persistent metadata store.
  6. Use Amazon S3 as the persistent metadata store.

Answer(s): B,C,E



A DevOps Engineer has several legacy applications that all generate different log formats. The Engineer must standardize the formats before writing them to
Amazon S3 for querying and analysis.
How can this requirement be met at the LOWEST cost?

  1. Have the application send its logs to an Amazon EMR cluster and normalize the logs before sending them to Amazon S3
  2. Have the application send its logs to Amazon QuickSight, then use the Amazon QuickSight SPICE engine to normalize the logs. Do the analysis directly from Amazon QuickSight
  3. Keep the logs in Amazon S3 and use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to normalize the logs in place
  4. Use Amazon Kinesis Agent on each server to upload the logs and have Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose use an AWS Lambda function to normalize the logs before writing them to Amazon S3

Answer(s): D



A company needs to implement a robust CI/CD pipeline to automate the deployment of an application in AWS. The pipeline must support continuous integration, continuous delivery, and automatic rollback upon deployment failure. The entire CI/CD pipeline must be capable of being re-provisioned in alternate AWS accounts or Regions within minutes. A DevOps engineer has already created an AWS CodeCommit repository to store the source code.
Which combination of actions should be taken when building this pipeline to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

  1. Con gure an AWS CodePipeline pipeline with a build stage using AWS CodeBuild.
  2. Copy the build artifact from CodeCommit to Amazon S3.
  3. Create an Auto Scaling group of Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB) and set the ALB as the deployment target in AWS CodePipeline.
  4. Create an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment as the deployment target in AWS CodePipeline.
  5. Implement an Amazon SQS queue to decouple the pipeline components.
  6. Provision all resources using AWS CloudFormation.

Answer(s): A,D,F



A company is building a solution for storing les containing Personally Identi able Information (PII) on AWS.
Requirements state:
All data must be encrypted at rest and in transit.
All data must be replicated in at least two locations that are at least 500 miles (805 kilometers) apart.
Which solution meets these requirements?

  1. Create primary and secondary Amazon S3 buckets in two separate Availability Zones that are at least 500 miles (805 kilometers) apart. Use a bucket policy to enforce access to the buckets only through HTTPS. Use a bucket policy to enforce Amazon S3 SSE-C on all objects uploaded to the bucket. Con gure cross- region replication between the two buckets.
  2. Create primary and secondary Amazon S3 buckets in two separate AWS Regions that are at least 500 miles (805 kilometers) apart. Use a bucket policy to enforce access to the buckets only through HTTPS. Use a bucket policy to enforce S3-Managed Keys (SSE-S3) on all objects uploaded to the bucket. Con gure cross-region replication between the two buckets.
  3. Create primary and secondary Amazon S3 buckets in two separate AWS Regions that are at least 500 miles (805 kilometers) apart. Use an IAM role to enforce access to the buckets only through HTTPS. Use a bucket policy to enforce Amazon S3-Managed Keys (SSE-S3) on all objects uploaded to the bucket. Con gure cross-region replication between the two buckets.
  4. Create primary and secondary Amazon S3 buckets in two separate Availability Zones that are at least 500 miles (805 kilometers) apart. Use a bucket policy to enforce access to the buckets only through HTTPS. Use a bucket policy to enforce AWS KMS encryption on all objects uploaded to the bucket. Con gure cross-region replication between the two buckets. Create a KMS Customer Master Key (CMK) in the primary region for encrypting objects.

Answer(s): B



A company is using an AWS CodeBuild project to build and package an application. The packages are copied to a shared Amazon S3 bucket before being deployed across multiple AWS accounts.
The buildspec.yml le contains the following:



The DevOps Engineer has noticed that anybody with an AWS account is able to download the artifacts.
What steps should the DevOps Engineer take to stop this?

  1. Modify the post_build to command to use "-acl public-read and con gure a bucket policy that grants read access to the relevant AWS accounts only.
  2. Con gure a default ACL for the S3 bucket that de nes the set of authenticated users as the relevant AWS accounts only and grants read- only access.
  3. Create an S3 bucket policy that grants read access to the relevant AWS accounts and denies read access to the principal *
  4. Modify the post_build command to remove "-acl authenticated-read and con gure a bucket policy that allows read access to the relevant AWS accounts only.

Answer(s): D



A DevOps engineer needs to grant several external contractors access to a legacy application that runs on an Amazon Linux Amazon EC2 instance. The application server is available only in a private subnet. The contractors are not authorized for VPN access. What should the DevOps engineer do to grant the contactors access to the application server?

  1. Create an IAM user and SSH keys for each contractor. Add the public SSH key to the application server's SSH authorized_keys le. Instruct the contractors to install the AWS CLI and AWS Systems Manager Session Manager plugin, update their AWS credentials les with their private keys, and use the aws ssm start-session command to gain access to the target application server instance ID.
  2. Ask each contractor to securely send their SSH public key. Add this public key to the application server's SSH authorized-keys le. Instruct the contractors to use their private key to connect to the application server through SSH.
  3. Ask each contractor to securely send their SSH public key. Use EC2 pairs to import their key. Update the application server's SSH authorized_keys le. Instruct the contractors to use their private key to connect to the application server through SSH.
  4. Create an IAM user for each contractor with programmatic access. Add each user to an IAM group that has a policy that allows the ssm:StartSession action. Instruct the contractors to install the AWS CLI and AWS Systems Manager Session Manager plugin, update their AWS credentials les with their access keys, and use the aws ssm start-session to gain access to the target application server instance I

Answer(s): D



A company hosts its staging website using an Amazon EC2 instance backed with Amazon EBS storage. The company wants to recover quickly with minimal data losses in the event of network connectivity issues or power failures on the EC2 instance.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Add the instance to an EC2 Auto Scaling group with the minimum, maximum, and desired capacity set to 1.
  2. Add the instance to an EC2 Auto Scaling group with a lifecycle hook to detach the EBS volume when the EC2 instance shuts down or terminates.
  3. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the StatusCheckFailed_System metric and select the EC2 action to recover the instance.
  4. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the StatusCheckFailed_Instance metric and select the EC2 action to reboot the instance.

Answer(s): C


Reference:

https://aws.amazon.com/ru/blogs/aws/ec2-instance-status-metrics/
https://docs.amazonaws.cn/en_us/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/monitoring/UsingAlarmActions.html



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
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