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Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Real Questions (page: 2)

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 PDF — 447 Questions

A company uses AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) keys and manual key rotation to meet regulatory compliance requirements. The security team wants to be notified when any keys have not been rotated after 90 days.

Which solution will accomplish this?

  1. Configure AWS KMS to publish to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic when keys are more than 90 days old.
  2. Configure an Amazon EventBridge event to launch an AWS Lambda function to call the AWS Trusted Advisor API and publish to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic.
  3. Develop an AWS Config custom rule that publishes to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic when keys are more than 90 days old.
  4. Configure AWS Security Hub to publish to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic when keys are more than 90 days old.

Answer(s): C



A security review has identified that an AWS CodeBuild project is downloading a database population script from an Amazon S3 bucket using an unauthenticated request. The security team does not allow unauthenticated requests to S3 buckets for this project.

How can this issue be corrected in the MOST secure manner?

  1. Add the bucket name to the AllowedBuckets section of the CodeBuild project settings. Update the build spec to use the AWS CLI to download the database population script.
  2. Modify the S3 bucket settings to enable HTTPS basic authentication and specify a token. Update the build spec to use cURL to pass the token and download the database population script.
  3. Remove unauthenticated access from the S3 bucket with a bucket policy. Modify the service role for the CodeBuild project to include Amazon S3 access. Use the AWS CLI to download the database population script.
  4. Remove unauthenticated access from the S3 bucket with a bucket policy. Use the AWS CLI to download the database population script using an IAM access key and a secret access key.

Answer(s): C



An ecommerce company has chosen AWS to host its new platform. The company's DevOps team has started building an AWS Control Tower landing zone. The DevOps team has set the identity store within AWS IAM Identity Center (AWS Single Sign-On) to external identity provider (IdP) and has configured SAML 2.0.

The DevOps team wants a robust permission model that applies the principle of least privilege. The model must allow the team to build and manage only the team's own resources.

Which combination of steps will meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

  1. Create IAM policies that include the required permissions. Include the aws:PrincipalTag condition key.
  2. Create permission sets. Attach an inline policy that includes the required permissions and uses the aws:PrincipalTag condition key to scope the permissions.
  3. Create a group in the IdP. Place users in the group. Assign the group to accounts and the permission sets in IAM Identity Center.
  4. Create a group in the IdP. Place users in the group. Assign the group to OUs and IAM policies.
  5. Enable attributes for access control in IAM Identity Center. Apply tags to users. Map the tags as key-value pairs.
  6. Enable attributes for access control in IAM Identity Center. Map attributes from the IdP as key-value pairs.

Answer(s): B,C,F



An ecommerce company is receiving reports that its order history page is experiencing delays in reflecting the processing status of orders. The order processing system consists of an AWS Lambda function that uses reserved concurrency. The Lambda function processes order messages from an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue and inserts processed orders into an Amazon DynamoDB table. The DynamoDB table has auto scaling enabled for read and write capacity.

Which actions should a DevOps engineer take to resolve this delay? (Choose two.)

  1. Check the ApproximateAgeOfOldestMessage metric for the SQS queue. Increase the Lambda function concurrency limit.
  2. Check the ApproximateAgeOfOldestMessage metric for the SQS queue Configure a redrive policy on the SQS queue.
  3. Check the NumberOfMessagesSent metric for the SQS queue. Increase the SQS queue visibility timeout.
  4. Check the WriteThrottleEvents metric for the DynamoDB table. Increase the maximum write capacity units (WCUs) for the table's scaling policy.
  5. Check the Throttles metric for the Lambda function. Increase the Lambda function timeout.

Answer(s): A,D



A company has a single AWS account that runs hundreds of Amazon EC2 instances in a single AWS Region. New EC2 instances are launched and terminated each hour in the account. The account also includes existing EC2 instances that have been running for longer than a week.

The company's security policy requires all running EC2 instances to use an EC2 instance profile. If an EC2 instance does not have an instance profile attached, the EC2 instance must use a default instance profile that has no IAM permissions assigned.

A DevOps engineer reviews the account and discovers EC2 instances that are running without an instance profile. During the review, the DevOps engineer also observes that new EC2 instances are being launched without an instance profile.

Which solution will ensure that an instance profile is attached to all existing and future EC2 instances in the Region?

  1. Configure an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to EC2 RunInstances API calls. Configure the rule to invoke an AWS Lambda function to attach the default instance profile to the EC2 instances.
  2. Configure the ec2-instance-profile-attached AWS Config managed rule with a trigger type of configuration changes. Configure an automatic remediation action that invokes an AWS Systems Manager Automation runbook to attach the default instance profile to the EC2 instances.
  3. Configure an Amazon EventBridge rule that reacts to EC2 StartInstances API calls. Configure the rule to invoke an AWS Systems Manager Automation runbook to attach the default instance profile to the EC2 instances
  4. Configure the iam-role-managed-policy-check AWS Config managed rule with a trigger type of configuration changes. Configure an automatic remediation action that invokes an AWS Lambda function to attach the default instance profile to the EC2 instances.

Answer(s): B



A DevOps engineer is building a continuous deployment pipeline for a serverless application that uses AWS Lambda functions. The company wants to reduce the customer impact of an unsuccessful deployment. The company also wants to monitor for issues.

Which deploy stage configuration will meet these requirements?

  1. Use an AWS Serverless Application Model (AWS SAM) template to define the serverless application. Use AWS CodeDeploy to deploy the Lambda functions with the Canary10Percent15Minutes Deployment Preference Type. Use Amazon CloudWatch alarms to monitor the health of the functions.
  2. Use AWS CloudFormation to publish a new stack update, and include Amazon CloudWatch alarms on all resources. Set up an AWS CodePipeline approval action for a developer to verify and approve the AWS CloudFormation change set.
  3. Use AWS CloudFormation to publish a new version on every stack update, and include Amazon CloudWatch alarms on all resources. Use the RoutingConfig property of the AWS::Lambda::Alias resource to update the traffic routing during the stack update.
  4. Use AWS CodeBuild to add sample event payloads for testing to the Lambda functions. Publish a new version of the functions, and include Amazon CloudWatch alarms. Update the production alias to point to the new version. Configure rollbacks to occur when an alarm is in the ALARM state.

Answer(s): A



To run an application, a DevOps engineer launches an Amazon EC2 instance with public IP addresses in a public subnet. A user data script obtains the application artifacts and installs them on the instances upon launch. A change to the security classification of the application now requires the instances to run with no access to the internet. While the instances launch successfully and show as healthy, the application does not seem to be installed.

Which of the following should successfully install the application while complying with the new rule?

  1. Launch the instances in a public subnet with Elastic IP addresses attached. Once the application is installed and running, run a script to disassociate the Elastic IP addresses afterwards.
  2. Set up a NAT gateway. Deploy the EC2 instances to a private subnet. Update the private subnet's route table to use the NAT gateway as the default route.
  3. Publish the application artifacts to an Amazon S3 bucket and create a VPC endpoint for S3. Assign an IAM instance profile to the EC2 instances so they can read the application artifacts from the S3 bucket.
  4. Create a security group for the application instances and allow only outbound traffic to the artifact repository.
    Remove the security group rule once the install is complete.

Answer(s): C



A development team is using AWS CodeCommit to version control application code and AWS CodePipeline to orchestrate software deployments. The team has decided to use a remote main branch as the trigger for the pipeline to integrate code changes. A developer has pushed code changes to the CodeCommit repository, but noticed that the pipeline had no reaction, even after 10 minutes.

Which of the following actions should be taken to troubleshoot this issue?

  1. Check that an Amazon EventBridge rule has been created for the main branch to trigger the pipeline.
  2. Check that the CodePipeline service role has permission to access the CodeCommit repository.
  3. Check that the developer's IAM role has permission to push to the CodeCommit repository.
  4. Check to see if the pipeline failed to start because of CodeCommit errors in Amazon CloudWatch Logs.

Answer(s): A



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A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

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INDIA
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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

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INDIA
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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
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D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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UNITED STATES
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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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NEW ZEALAND
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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

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Anonymous
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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Anonymous
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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

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Anonymous
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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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UNITED KINGDOM
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8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

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Alex
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