AICPA CPA Financial Accounting and Reporting FAR Dumps in PDF

Free AICPA FAR Real Questions (page: 16)

In open market transactions, Gold Corp. simultaneously sold its long-term investment in Iron Corp. bonds and purchased its own outstanding bonds. The broker remitted the net cash from the two transactions.
Gold's gain on the purchase of its own bonds exceeded its loss on the sale of the Iron bonds. Assume the transaction to purchase its own outstanding bonds is unusual in nature and has occurred infrequently.
Gold should report the:

  1. Net effect of the two transactions as an extraordinary gain.
  2. Net effect of the two transactions in income before extraordinary items.
  3. Effect of its own bond transaction gain in income before extraordinary items, and report the Iron bond transaction as an extraordinary loss.
  4. Effect of its own bond transaction as an extraordinary gain, and report the Iron bond transaction loss in income before extraordinary items.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Choice "d" is correct, these are two separate transactions because Gold Corp. (1) sold Iron Corp. bonds (an investment) for a loss, and, (2) bought back its own (Gold) Corp. bonds (a debt) for a gain. This is not a "refinancing" (where one would sell new bond debt to buy back old bond debt outstanding).
The gain from the purchase of its own bonds is an "extraordinary gain" because it is both unusual in nature and infrequently occurring (per APB Opinion No. 30 and SFAS No. 145). The Iron Corp. transaction is a loss in "income before extraordinary items." Choices "a" and "b" are incorrect. The two transactions are separate and cannot be netted. Choice "c" is incorrect. Just the opposite. The sale of the investment is a loss in "income before extraordinary items," while the purchase of its bond debt is an "extraordinary gain" according to the provisions of APB Opinion No. 30.



Lore Co. changed from the cash basis of accounting to the accrual basis of accounting during 1994. The cumulative effect of this change should be reported in Lore's 1994 financial statements as a:

  1. Prior period adjustment resulting from the correction of an error.
  2. Prior period adjustment resulting from the change in accounting principle.
  3. Component of income before extraordinary item.
  4. Component of income after extraordinary item.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Choice "a" is correct. The cash basis for financial reporting is not a generally accepted accounting basis of accounting (GAAP); therefore, it is an error. Correction of an error from a prior period is a reported as prior period adjustment to retained earnings. Choice "b" is incorrect. Cash basis reporting is not an accounting principle under accrual accounting principles. Thus, the change from cash basis is not reported as a change in accounting principle. In addition, changes in accounting principle are not prior period adjustments; instead, they are treated retrospectively.
Choices "c" and "d" are incorrect. Correction of prior period errors has no effect on the current year's income statement.



A material loss should be presented separately as a component of income from continuing operations when it is:

  1. An extraordinary item.
  2. A cumulative effect type change in accounting principle.
  3. Unusual in nature and infrequent in occurrence.
  4. Not unusual in nature but infrequent in occurrence.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Choice "d" is correct. Gains or losses that are unusual in nature or occur infrequently but not both, are presented as a component of income from continuing operations. Choice "a" is incorrect. Extraordinary items are shown net of tax in a separate section of the income statement after income from continuing operations.
Choice "b" is incorrect. Cumulative effects of changes in accounting principle are now shown net of tax as an adjustment to the opening balance of retained earnings in the retained earnings statement. This treatment is called retrospective application. There really are no longer any cumulative effect types of changes in accounting principle. The cumulative effect is merely how the amount of the change is measured.
Choice "c" is incorrect. This is the definition of an extraordinary item.



During 1994, Orca Corp. decided to change from the FIFO method of inventory valuation to the weightedaverage method. Inventory balances under each method were as follows:



Orca's income tax rate is 30%.
Orca should report the cumulative effect of this accounting change as a(n):

  1. Adjustment to beginning retained earnings.
  2. Component of income from continuing operations.
  3. Extraordinary item.
  4. Component of income after extraordinary items.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Choice "a" is correct. The cumulative effect of a change in accounting principle is shown as an adjustment to beginning retained earnings.
Choice "b" is incorrect. The cumulative effect of a change in accounting principle is now presented as a separate category on the retained earnings statement and is not a component of net income. Choice "c" is incorrect. Extraordinary items are unusual and infrequent in nature. Extraordinary items have nothing to do with changes in accounting principle. Choice "d" is incorrect. A change in accounting principle affects retained earnings, not the income statement, under SFAS No. 154.



A transaction that is unusual in nature and infrequent in occurrence should be reported separately as a component of income:

  1. After cumulative effect of accounting changes and before discontinued operations of a segment of a business.
  2. After cumulative effect of accounting changes and after discontinued operations of a segment of a business.
  3. Before cumulative effect of accounting changes and before discontinued operations of a segment of a business.
  4. After discontinued operations of a segment of a business.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Choice "d" is correct. An extraordinary item (a transaction that is both "unusual in nature" and "infrequent in occurrence") should be reported separately as a component of income after discontinued operations of a segment of a business.
The cumulative effect of a change in accounting principle is shown on the retained earnings statement.
This is why memorizing the mnemonic "idea" is so important.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

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Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

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3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

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3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

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12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

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10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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