AACN CCRN (Adult) – Direct Care Eligibility Pathway CCRN-Adult Exam Questions in PDF

Free AACN CCRN-Adult Dumps Questions (page: 3)

A patient is admitted for sepsis secondary to pneumoni

  1. The patient has received 2000 mL of plasmalyte and their BP remains 80/50.
    What should the nurse anticipate next for the patient?
  2. dopamine
  3. norepinephrine
  4. 1L of plasmalyte
  5. vasopressin

Answer(s): B



A patient with a sodium level of 114 mEq/L is most likely to develop

  1. tetany.
  2. flaccid paralysis.
  3. seizures.
  4. cardiac arrhythmias.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:





A patient with a sodium level of 114 mEq/L is most likely to develop seizures, which are a manifestation of severe hyponatremia and cerebral edema. Hyponatremia is a low level of sodium in the blood, which can cause water to move into the brain cells and cause them to swell. This can lead to increased intracranial pressure, neurological dysfunction, and seizures. Seizures are a medical emergency and require prompt treatment to prevent brain damage or death. Tetany, flaccid paralysis, and cardiac arrhythmias are not typical signs of hyponatremia, but may occur in other electrolyte disorders, such as hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.


Reference:

Overview of the treatment of hyponatremia in adults - UpToDate1, p. 1-2. Manifestations of hyponatremia and hypernatremia in adults - UpToDate2, p. 1-2.



A patient with a history of six cardiac catheterizations relates that he has received differing instructions about the duration of required bedrest after the procedure. To further investigate this issue, which of the following is a nurse's most appropriate action?

  1. Ask about obtaining an independent evaluation of unit outcomes.
  2. Conduct an informal chart review and outcome evaluation of patients treated with different bedrest protocols.
  3. Review recent published research about bedrest protocols.
  4. Ask the nursing supervisor to request standardized physician orders for patients who have undergone catheterization.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The nurse's most appropriate action is to review recent published research about bedrest protocols, as this would provide the nurse with the most current and reliable evidence to guide clinical practice and improve patient outcomes. Bedrest protocols after cardiac catheterization may vary depending on the type of access site, the use of closure devices, the patient's risk factors, and the clinician's preference. However, there is a growing body of research that supports early ambulation and shorter bedrest duration to reduce the risk of complications, such as bleeding, hematoma, back pain, and venous thromboembolism, and to enhance patient comfort and satisfaction.
Asking about obtaining an independent evaluation of unit outcomes, conducting an informal chart review and outcome evaluation of patients treated with different bedrest protocols, or asking the nursing supervisor to request standardized physician orders for patients who have undergone catheterization are not the most appropriate actions, as they may not reflect the best available evidence, may be biased or incomplete, or may not address the patient's concern.


Reference:

1: Bedrest After Cardiac Catheterization: A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis4, p. 1-2.
2: Early Ambulation After Cardiac Catheterization: A Literature Review, p. 1-2.
3: Bed Rest After Cardiac Catheterization: A Review of the Evidence, p. 1-2.



A patient is 2 days post MI. The patient was stable until this morning, when severe chest discomfort developed. Assessment reveals:

-BP 70/palpable
-HR 122
-RR 38
-PAOP 28 mm Hg, with large V waves
-CI 1.6 L/min/m2
-Cool, clammy skin

Inspiratory crackles throughout the lung field
Loud blowing holosystolic murmur at the apex
The patient's present clinical status is most likely a result of

  1. papillary muscle rupture.
  2. cardiac tamponade.
  3. acute aortic insufficiency.
  4. ventricular septal defect.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The patient's present clinical status is most likely a result of a ventricular septal defect (VSD), which is a hole in the wall between the left and right ventricles. A VSD can occur as a mechanical complication of MI, usually within the first week, due to necrosis and rupture of the ventricular septum. A VSD causes a left-to-right shunt of blood, which leads to increased pulmonary pressure, pulmonary edema, and reduced cardiac output. The patient's symptoms and signs are consistent with a VSD, such as severe chest pain, hypotension, tachycardia, respiratory distress, high PAOP with large V waves, low CI, cool and clammy skin, inspiratory crackles, and a loud blowing holosystolic murmur at the apex. A papillary muscle rupture, a cardiac tamponade, and an acute aortic insufficiency are other possible mechanical complications of MI, but they have different clinical manifestations. A papillary muscle rupture causes acute mitral regurgitation, which presents with a soft systolic murmur at the apex and pulmonary congestion.
A cardiac tamponade causes compression of the heart by pericardial fluid, which presents with hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension.
An acute aortic insufficiency causes backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle, which presents with a diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border and a wide pulse pressure.


Reference:

1: Mechanical complications of acute myocardial infarction - UpToDate4, p. 2-3.
2: Cardiac tamponade - Symptoms, diagnosis and treatment | BMJ Best Practice US, p. 1-2.
3: Acute aortic regurgitation - Symptoms, diagnosis and treatment | BMJ Best Practice US,
p. 1-2.



Which of the following ECG changes is expected in a patient with a potassium concentration of 3.0 mEq/L?

  1. ST segment depression, flattened and inverted T wave, and a U wave
  2. tall peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, and prolonged QRS complex
  3. shortened QT interval and complete atrioventricular block
  4. inverted P wave, elevated T wave, and prolonged QT interval

Answer(s): A

Explanation:



A patient with a potassium concentration of 3.0 mEq/L has mild hypokalemia, which is a low level of potassium in the blood. Hypokalemia can cause various ECG changes that reflect the impairment of cardiac depolarization and repolarization. The most common ECG changes in mild hypokalemia are ST segment depression, flattened and inverted T wave, and a U wave, which is a positive deflection after the T wave. These ECG changes can be seen in the examples from the web search results.
Other ECG changes that may occur in more severe hypokalemia are prolonged QT interval, frequent ectopic beats, and arrhythmias.
Tall peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, and prolonged QRS complex are ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia, which is a high level of potassium in the blood.
Shortened QT interval and complete atrioventricular block are not typical ECG changes of hypokalemia, but may occur in other electrolyte disorders, such as hypercalcemia.
Inverted P wave, elevated T wave, and prolonged QT interval are not specific ECG changes of hypokalemia, but may occur in other cardiac conditions, such as ischemia, myocarditis, or pericarditis.



A patient admits to a nurse that he has struggled with depression and feelings of isolation and abandonment since moving into a nursing home last year, but he has recently started taking an anti-depressant. The patient states, "Sometimes it takes everything I've got just to go on each day." Which of the following is the nurse's best initial response?

  1. "You sound like you've been really unhappy. Have you thought about harming yourself?"
  2. "Those feelings should resolve when the medication you've started has a chance to take effect."
  3. "I understand how you feel. We all get that way when we're depressed."
  4. "Have you talked to anyone about what is bothering you?"

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

This is the nurse's best initial response, as it expresses empathy, validates the patient's feelings, and assesses the patient's risk of suicide. Depression is a common and serious mental health condition that affects older adults, especially those living in nursing homes. Depression can cause persistent sadness, hopelessness, loss of interest, and suicidal thoughts or behaviors. The nurse should screen the patient for depression using a validated tool, such as the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) 1, and ask about any suicidal ideation or plans. The nurse should also provide emotional support, education, and referral to appropriate resources for the patient.
B . "Those feelings should resolve when the medication you've started has a chance to take effect." This is not the nurse's best initial response, as it dismisses the patient's feelings, implies that the patient just needs to wait for the medication to work, and does not address the patient's psychosocial needs. Antidepressants are one of the treatment options for depression, but they may take several weeks to show their full effect, and they may not work for everyone. The nurse should also explore other factors that may contribute to the patient's depression, such as social isolation, loss of autonomy, chronic illness, or grief, and offer interventions that may help the patient cope, such as counseling, psychotherapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, or social activities.
C . "I understand how you feel. We all get that way when we're depressed." This is not the nurse's best initial response, as it assumes that the nurse knows how the patient feels, minimizes the patient's experience, and generalizes the patient's condition. Depression is not a normal or inevitable part of aging, and it affects each person differently. The nurse should not compare the patient's feelings to their own or to others, but rather acknowledge and respect the patient's unique perspective and situation. The nurse should also avoid using words like "we" or "you" that may create a sense of distance or judgment, and instead use words like "I" or "me" that may convey a sense of empathy or rapport.

D . "Have you talked to anyone about what is bothering you?" This is not the nurse's best initial response, as it may sound like the nurse is trying to avoid listening to the patient, or that the patient is bothering the nurse with their problems. The nurse should not imply that the patient should talk to someone else, but rather show interest and willingness to listen to the patient. The nurse should also use open-ended questions that invite the patient to share more, such as "How are you feeling today?" or "What has been on your mind lately?" The nurse should also use active listening skills, such as nodding, paraphrasing, reflecting, or summarizing, to demonstrate understanding and engagement.



A nurse should expect which of the following plans of care for a patient with a complicated RV infarction?

  1. dobutamine (Dobutrex), fluid restrictions, and furosemide (Lasix)
  2. nitroprusside (Nipride), fluid restrictions, and transvenous pacing
  3. nitroglycerin, fluid infusions, and morphine
  4. dobutamine (Dobutrex), fluid infusions, and transvenous pacing

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A nurse should expect a plan of care that includes dobutamine (Dobutrex), fluid infusions, and transvenous pacing for a patient with a complicated RV infarction, as these interventions aim to improve RV function, increase cardiac output, and correct bradyarrhythmias. Dobutamine is an inotropic agent that increases myocardial contractility and reduces RV afterload.
Fluid infusions are used to optimize RV preload and maintain adequate systemic perfusion.
Transvenous pacing is indicated for patients with symptomatic bradycardia or high-grade AV block that compromise hemodynamics.
Dobutamine (Dobutrex), fluid restrictions, and furosemide (Lasix) are not appropriate for a patient with a complicated RV infarction, as they may worsen RV preload and cardiac output. Nitroprusside (Nipride), fluid restrictions, and transvenous pacing are not suitable for a patient with a complicated RV infarction, as they may cause excessive vasodilation and hypotension. Nitroglycerin, fluid infusions, and morphine are not optimal for a patient with a complicated RV infarction, as they may reduce RV preload and increase RV ischemia.



The intended effects of medications for a patient in acute CHF are to

  1. reduce CVP and increase SVR.
  2. reduce CVP and reduce SVR.
  3. increase CVP and reduce SVR.
  4. increase CVP and increase SVR.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The intended effects of medications for a patient in acute CHF are to reduce CVP and reduce SVR, as this would decrease the preload and afterload on the failing heart and improve the cardiac output and tissue perfusion. CVP (central venous pressure) is a measure of the pressure in the right atrium and reflects the volume status of the patient. SVR (systemic vascular resistance) is a measure of the resistance in the systemic circulation and reflects the tone of the blood vessels. Medications that can reduce CVP and SVR in acute CHF include diuretics, nitrates, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, and vasodilators.
Increasing CVP and reducing SVR would increase the preload and decrease the afterload, which may be beneficial for some patients with low cardiac output and low filling pressures, but not for patients with acute CHF and volume overload.
Reducing CVP and increasing SVR would decrease the preload and increase the afterload, which would worsen the cardiac function and oxygen demand in acute CHF3. Increasing CVP and increasing SVR would increase both the preload and the afterload, which would also worsen the cardiac function and oxygen demand in acute CHF3.


Reference:

1: Acute decompensated heart failure: Management - UpToDate4, p. 5-6.
2: Acute heart failure: diagnosis and management | Guidance | NICE, p. 8-9.
3: Hemodynamic monitoring in acute heart failure - UpToDate, p. 3-4.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

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